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Class 10 Social Science Previous Year Questions, Chapter-wise (2022-2026)

CBSE Class 10 · 805 Questions · 22 Chapters · Free PDF

Every CBSE Class 10 Social Science board exam question from 2022-2026 that we have on file, sorted by NCERT chapter and then by type: MCQs and assertion-reason, very short, short and long answers, and case studies. Each question is tagged with its year and marks. A question repeated across paper sets appears once. Questions that depend on a figure from the original paper are left out. Questions only, no answers.

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  1. Resources and Development (34)
  2. Forest and Wildlife Resources (23)
  3. Water Resources (27)
  4. Agriculture (35)
  5. Minerals and Energy Resources (39)
  6. Manufacturing Industries (26)
  7. Lifelines of National Economy (25)
  8. Development (42)
  9. Sectors of the Indian Economy (67)
  10. Money and Credit (57)
  11. Globalisation and the Indian Economy (41)
  12. Consumer Rights (7)
  13. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe (41)
  14. Nationalism in India (60)
  15. The Making of a Global World (31)
  16. The Age of Industrialisation (13)
  17. Print Culture and the Modern World (33)
  18. Power Sharing (47)
  19. Federalism (41)
  20. Gender, Religion and Caste (36)
  21. Political Parties (45)
  22. Outcomes of Democracy (35)

1Resources and Development Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (9)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which of the following categories of 'land-use' has India registered an increase?

  1. Permanent pasture
  2. Unsuitable for agriculture
  3. Barren
  4. Forest
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an example of 'current fallow land'?

  1. Land left without cultivation for five agricultural years.
  2. Land left without cultivation for three agricultural years.
  3. Land left without cultivation for two agricultural years.
  4. Land left without cultivation for one agricultural year.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

  1. Natural Gas
  2. Crude Oil
  3. Coal
  4. Ground Water
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Identify the soil with the help of the following informations given in the box and choose the correct option: It is made up of extremely fine material. It is rich in soil nutrients. It is ideal for growing cotton.

  1. Alluvial Soil
  2. Black Soil
  3. Laterite Soil
  4. Arid Soil
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of a soil and identify the soil from the given options. · It is widely spread and important soil. · Northern plains are made of it. · It consists of sand, silt and clay.

  1. Yellow soil
  2. Black soil
  3. Laterite soil
  4. Alluvial soil
Q6.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following soils develops in an area with high temperature and heavy rainfall?

  1. Red and Yellow
  2. Black
  3. Alluvial
  4. Laterite
Q7.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match the column - 1 with column - 2 and choose the correct option: Column - 1 (Resources): (I) Biological (II) Renewable (III) Non-renewable; Column - 2 (Example): 1. Coal 2. Wildlife 3. Solar Energy

  1. I-1, II-3, III-2
  2. I-3, II-2, III-1
  3. I-2, II-3, III-1
  4. I-1, II-2, III-3
Q8.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is correctly matched?

  1. Alluvial Soil - Consist of sand and silt
  2. Black Soil - Salt content is high
  3. Arid Soil - Diffusion of iron in crystalline
  4. Laterite Soil - Made up of Lava flows
Q9.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Mention the main reason for land degradation in states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

  1. Over-grazing
  2. Mining
  3. Over irrigation
  4. Mineral processing

Very short answer (12)

Q10.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain indiscriminate use of resources.

Q11.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain any two measures to solve the problem of land degradation.

Q12.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain two important characteristics of Black soil.

Q13.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Why is planning necessary for judicious use of resources? Explain.

Q14.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the role of planning for judicious use of resources.

Q15.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Suggest any two measures to solve the problems of land degradation.

Q16.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe any two features of laterite soils.

Q17.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe any two features of rid soils.

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe any two features of red soils.

Q19.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How can a nation achieve a balance between economic growth and environment sustainability? Explain by giving any two arguments.

Q20.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Suggest any two ways to solve the problem of land degradation.

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

(a) 'Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks.' Explain the statement with example.

Short answer (4)

Q22.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the statement with suitable arguments.

Q23.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows: Story of Rinjha Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility season. Identify the type of farming being practiced and explain its characteristics.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows: Story of Rinjha - Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of season. Suggest any three measures to Rinjha so that the fertility of the soil of her fields remains intact for a long time.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows: Story of Rinjha - Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of season. Suggest any three measures to Rinjha so that the fertility of the soil of her fields remains intact for a long time.

Long answer (2)

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

(a) Justify the statement. OR (b) Justify the statement.

Q27.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is the major threat to sustainable development in India. Justify the statement in the context of sustainability of development.

Case-based (7)

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Salal – Dam

Case study · CBSE 2024

Resources are vital for any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels is important. This had been the main concern of the leaders and thinkers in the past. For example, Gandhiji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation in these words: ''There is enough for everybody's need and not for any body's greed.'' He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level. He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(35.1) Define the term 'Resource Planning'.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(36.1) Define the term 'Resource Planning'.

Case study · CBSE 2024

Conservation of Resources: Resources are vital for any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels is important. This had been the main concern of the leaders and thinkers in the past. For example, Gandhiji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation in these words: 'There is enough for everybody's need and not for any body's greed.' He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level. He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(36.1) Define the term 'Resource Planning'.

Case study · CBSE 2024

At the international level, the Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968. Subsequently, in 1974, Gandhian philosophy was once again presented by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful. The seminal contribution with respect to resource conservation at the global level was made by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987. This report introduced the concept of 'Sustainable Development' and advocated it as a means for resource conservation, which was subsequently published in a book entitled Our Common Future. Another significant contribution was made at the Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(35.1) Explain the meaning of sustainable development.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Explain the meaning of sustainable development.

Case study · CBSE 2024

Conservation of Resources At the international level, the Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968. Subsequently, in 1974, Gandhian philosophy was once again presented by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful. The seminal contribution with respect to resource conservation at the global level was made by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987. This report introduced the concept of 'Sustainable Development' and advocated it as a means for resource conservation, which was subsequently published in a book entitled Our Common Future. Another significant contribution was made at the Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

(36.1) Explain the meaning of sustainable development.

2Forest and Wildlife Resources Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (17)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option: Column – I (National Park): a. Corbett, b. Sunderban, c. Sariska, d. Periyar; Column – II (States): i. Rajasthan, ii. Uttarakhand, iii. Kerala, iv. West Bengal

  1. ii i iv iii
  2. i iii ii iv
  3. iv ii iii i
  4. ii iv i iii
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option: a. Corbett, b. Sunderban, c. Sariska, d. Periyar with i. Rajasthan, ii. Uttarakhand, iii. Kerala, iv. West Bengal

  1. ii i iv iii
  2. i iii ii iv
  3. iv ii iii i
  4. ii iv i iii
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option: Column – I (National Park) Column – II (States)

  1. ii i iv iii
  2. i iii ii iv
  3. iv ii iii i
  4. ii iv i iii
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which of the following States of India, has the largest area under permanent forests?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Gujarat
  4. Maharashtra
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option: Column-I (National Parks): a. Sariska b. Sunderban c. Corbett d. Bandhavgarh Column-II (States): i. Madhya Pradesh ii. Uttarakhand iii. West Bengal iv. Rajasthan

  1. iii ii i iv
  2. iv ii iii i
  3. iv iii ii i
  4. ii iv iii i
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option: I. Reserved II. Protected III. Unclassed

  1. III, II, I
  2. I, II, III
  3. II, III, I
  4. III, I, II
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which state is the leading producer of tiger reserves in India?

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Maharashtra
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: National Park/Tiger Reserve and State

  1. Corbett National Park - Himachal Pradesh
  2. Bandhavgarh National Park - Rajasthan
  3. Periyar Tiger Reserve - Tamil Nadu
  4. Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following characteristics of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act are correct? Choose the most appropriate option. I. To make provisions for habitat for wild animals. II. To publish list of protected species. III. To ban hunting to save endangered species. IV. To include important subjects like forests and wildlife in the Union List.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following characteristics of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act are correct? Choose the most appropriate option. Characteristics: I. To make provisions for habitat for wild animals. II. To publish list of protected species. III. To ban hunting to save endangered species. IV. To include important subjects like forests and wildlife in the Union List.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: National Park/Tiger Reserve - State

  1. Corbett National Park - Himachal Pradesh
  2. Bandhavgarh National Park - Rajasthan
  3. Periyar Tiger Reserve - Tamil Nadu
  4. Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : Column I Column II. a. Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary i. Uttarakhand. b. Manas Tiger Reserve ii. Rajasthan. c. Periyar Tiger Reserve iii. Assam. d. Corbett National Park iv. Kerala

  1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  2. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  3. a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  4. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Q13.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I: a. Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary, b. Manas Tiger Reserve, c. Periyar Tiger Reserve, d. Corbett National Park. Column II: i. Uttarakhand, ii. Rajasthan, iii. Assam, iv. Kerala.

  1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  2. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  3. a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  4. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): The famous 'Chipko Movement' in the Himalayas successfully resisted deforestation in several areas. Reason (R): Through this, community afforestation campaign with indigenous species was made enormously successful.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column I (National Park): i. Kaziranga ii. Jim Corbett iii. Sunderbans iv. Bandhavgarh Column II (State): a. Madhya Pradesh b. Assam c. Uttarakhand d. West Bengal

  1. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
  2. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
  3. i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
  4. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column I (National Park) | Column II (State) i. Kaziranga | a. Madhya Pradesh ii. Jim Corbett | b. Assam iii. Sunderbans | c. Uttarakhand iv. Bandhavgarh | d. West Bengal

  1. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
  2. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
  3. i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
  4. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented?

  1. 1972
  2. 1978
  3. 1980
  4. 1985

Very short answer (3)

Q18.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Suggest any two ways to conserve wildlife in India.

Q19.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Explain any two causes of depletion of forests during the colonial period in India.

Q20.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Differentiate between reserved and protected forests.

Case-based (3)

Case study · CBSE 2024

Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the authorities realized that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the 20th century. The major threats to tiger population are numerous, such as poaching for trade, shrinking habitat, depletion of prey base species, growing human population, etc. The trade of tiger skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in the Asian countries left the tiger population on the verge of extinction. Since India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population in the world, these two nations become prime targets for poaching and illegal trading. "Project Tiger", one of the well publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in 1973. Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some examples of the tiger reserves in India.

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Why was 'Project Tiger' considered a significant step for Tiger Conservation?

Case study · CBSE 2024

Project Tiger. Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the authorities realized that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the 20th century. The major threats to tiger population are numerous, such as poaching for trade, shrinking habitat, depletion of prey base species, growing human population, etc. The trade of tiger skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in the Asian countries left the tiger population on the verge of extinction. Since India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population in the world, these two nations become prime targets for poaching and illegal trading. 'Project Tiger', one of the well publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in 1973. Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some examples of the tiger reserves in India.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Why was 'Project Tiger' considered a significant step for Tiger Conservation?

Case study · CBSE 2024

Sacred Groves – A wealth of diverse and rare species Nature worship is an age old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned. Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (mangifera indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred. Indian society comprises several cultures, each with its own set of traditional methods of conserving nature and its creations. Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants and animals which are closely protected. You will find troops of macaques and langurs around many temples. They are fed daily and treated as a part of temple devotees. In and around Bishnoi villages in Rajasthan, herds of blackbuck, (chinkara), nilgai and peacocks can be seen as an integral part of the community and nobody harms them.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

How does sacred groves relate to the belief in nature worship?

3Water Resources Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (9)

Q1.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Dam) - Column II (River) a. Hirakud - i. Chambal b. Gandhi Sagar - ii. Krishna c. Nagarjuna Sagar - iii. Kaveri d. Mettur - iv. Mahanadi

  1. a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  2. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
  3. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
  4. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Q2.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna Godavari issue:

  1. Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
  2. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
  3. Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
  4. Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Dam): a. Hirakud, b. Gandhi Sagar, c. Nagarjuna Sagar, d. Mettur Column II (River): i. Chambal, ii. Krishna, iii. Kaveri, iv. Mahanadi

  1. a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  2. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
  3. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
  4. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (River): a. Chambal, b. Ganga, c. Chenab, d. Satluj; Column II (Dam): i. Salal, ii. Bhakra Nangal, iii. Gandhi Sagar, iv. Tehri

  1. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  2. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  4. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option of the states that have been majorly benefitted by the Sardar Sarovar Dam.

  1. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana
  2. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan
  3. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Chhattisgarh
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (River) - Column II (Dam): a. Chambal - i. Salal, b. Ganga - ii. Bhakra Nangal, c. Chenab - iii. Gandhi Sagar, d. Satluj - iv. Tehri

  1. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  2. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  4. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the irrigation system in Meghalaya?

  1. To irrigate land only during rainy season.
  2. To use large volumes of water for irrigation.
  3. To remove water from soil.
  4. To use bamboo drip irrigation system.
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column I (Dams): i. Sardar Sarovar, ii. Hirakud, iii. Bhakra Nangal, iv. Nagarjuna Sagar Column II (Rivers): a. Sutlej, b. Krishna, c. Narmada, d. Mahanadi

  1. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
  2. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
  3. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
  4. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which one of the following states is 'bamboo drip irrigation system' prevalent ?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. West Bengal
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Odisha

Short answer (4)

Q10.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

How have industrialisation and urbanisation impacted water supply ? Explain.

Q11.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Describe any three ways of water conservation used in ancient India.

Q12.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain any three aims of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM).

Q13.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

How can fresh water be saved from the industrial pollution? Suggest any three ways.

Long answer (2)

Q14.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is causing serious problems. Explain this statement in the context of sustainability of development.

Q15.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(b) Describe any five steps taken to control industrial pollution of fresh water.

Case-based (12)

Case study · CBSE 2026

Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water resources projects of India covering four states – Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar Project would meet the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas. Sardar Sarovar Project will provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat. It will also irrigate 2,46,000 hectare of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan and 37,500 hectare in the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift. About 75% of the command area in Gujarat is drought prone while entire command in Rajasthan is drought prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought proof.

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Why is Sardar Sarovar Project considered important for Gujarat?

Case study · CBSE 2026

Sardar Sarovar Project: Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water resources projects of India covering four states – Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar Project would meet the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas. Sardar Sarovar Project will provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat. It will also irrigate 2,46,000 hectare of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan and 37,500 hectare in the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift. About 75% of the command area in Gujarat is drought prone while entire command in Rajasthan is drought prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought proof.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Why is Sardar Sarovar Project considered important for Gujarat?

Case study · CBSE 2026

Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana Floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive soil erosion. Sedimentation also meant that the flood plains were deprived of silt, a natural fertilizer, further adding on to the problem of land degradation. It was also observed that the multipurpose projects induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water. Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences like salinisation of the soil. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana has been started which ensures access to some means to protective irrigation for all agricultural farms in the country, thus bringing much desired rural prosperity. Some of the broad objectives of this programme are to enhance the physical access of water on the farm and expand cultivable area under assured irrigation (har khet ko pani), improve on farm water, use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability both in duration and extent, irrigation and other water saving technologies (per drop more crop) and introduce sustainable water conservation practices, etc.

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Explain the role of floods in land degradation.

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(18.1) Explain the role of floods in land degradation.

Q20.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Salal – Dam

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Bhakra Nangal – Dam

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the state where Bhakra Nangal dam is located.

Case study · CBSE 2023

Most of the objections to the projects arose due to their failure to achieve the purposes for which they were built. Ironically, the dams that were constructed to control the floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. Moreover, the big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall. You may have seen or read how the release of water from the dams during heavy rains aggravated the flood situation in Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive soil erosion. Sedimentation also meant that the flood plains were deprived of silt, a natural fertiliser, further adding on to the problem of land degradation. It was also observed that the multi-purpose projects induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.

Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Name the movement against the river project in Gujarat.

Case study · CBSE 2023

RAINWATER HARVESTING. Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multi purpose projects, water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water harvesting system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the 'guls' or 'kuls' of the Western Himalayas for agriculture. 'Rooftop rainwater harvesting' was commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the 'khadins' in Jaisalmer and 'Johads' in other parts of Rajasthan.

Q24.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Why is water harvesting system a viable alternative?

Case study · CBSE 2023

Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multi purpose projects, water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water harvesting system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the 'guls' or 'kuls' of the Western Himalayas for agriculture. 'Rooftop rainwater harvesting' was commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the 'khadins' in Jaisalmer and 'Johads' in other parts of Rajasthan.

Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Why is water harvesting system a viable alternative?

Case study · CBSE 2023

In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system. People had an in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest groundwater, rainwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hilly and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the kuls and guls of Western Himalayas for agriculture. Rooftop rainwater harvesting was very commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan.

Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(35.1) Mention any two methods of traditional water-harvesting used in India.

Q27.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Mention any two methods of traditional water-harvesting used in India.

4Agriculture Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (14)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which of the following regions did the 'Beej-Bachao Andolan' of farmers begin?

  1. Kumaon
  2. Tehri
  3. Almora
  4. Chamoli
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following crops grows well in hot and humid climate?

  1. Sugarcane
  2. Peas
  3. Wheat
  4. Gram
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Identify the correct option related to major crops grown in the 'Kharif' cropping season in India:

  1. Paddy, Peas, Mustard
  2. Paddy, Mustard, Gram
  3. Paddy, Jowar, Maize
  4. Paddy, Maize, Gram
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey?

  1. Paddy
  2. Maize
  3. Wheat
  4. Jowar
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Swapna is a small farmer. Swapna wants to cultivate cotton. What kind of geographical conditions will be suitable for this? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Laterite soil, Moderate rainfall, Low temperature and Bright sunshine
  2. Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine
  3. Laterite soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Moderate sunshine
  4. Black soil, High rainfall, Low temperature and Moderate sunshine
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Swapna is a small farmer. Swapna wants to cultivate cotton. What kind of geographical conditions will be suitable for this?

  1. Laterite soil, Moderate rainfall, Low temperature and Bright sunshine
  2. Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine
  3. Laterite soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Moderate sunshine
  4. Black soil, High rainfall, Low temperature and Moderate sunshine
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Mrs. Monica, along with her family, clears a piece of land and grows crops on it. When the fertility of the soil decreases, she prepares another piece of land for agriculture. Which of the following methods of agriculture does she use ?

  1. Plantation farming
  2. Slash and burn farming
  3. Intensive subsistence farming
  4. Commercial farming
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I (Crop): I. Wheat, II. Ragi, III. Tea, IV. Maize Column-II (Type): a. Millet Crop, b. Beverage Crop, c. Food Crop, d. Food & Fodder Crop

  1. I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b
  2. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
  3. I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
  4. I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option: Column-I (Crop) Column-II (Type) I. Wheat a. Millet Crop II. Ragi b. Beverage Crop III. Tea c. Food Crop IV. Maize d. Food & Fodder Crop

  1. d a c b
  2. c d b a
  3. c a b d
  4. d b a c
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following informations and identify the crop. It is the staple food crop of majority of people in India. India is the second largest producer of this crop. It is a Kharif crop. It requires high humidity with 100 cm of annual rainfall.

  1. Ragi
  2. Bajra
  3. Wheat
  4. Rice
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following informations and identify the crop.

  1. Ragi
  2. Bajra
  3. Wheat
  4. Rice
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

'Floriculture' comes under which one of the following sectors of the economy?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

There are two statements given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Agriculture and industry move hand in hand. Reason (R): Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from the country.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair.

  1. Primitive subsistence farming - practised on large patches of land
  2. Intensive subsistence farming - single crop production farming
  3. Commercial farming - use of higher doses of modern inputs
  4. Plantation farming - practised on small patches of land

Very short answer (6)

Q15.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

If every farmer in India follows modern farming practices, explain any two positive changes this could bring to villages.

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain the measures made by government to improve Indian agriculture.

Q17.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Differentiate between Primitive Subsistence and Commercial Farming.

Q18.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Differentiate between Intensive Subsistence and Plantation Farming.

Q19.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

"Agriculture and industry move hand in hand." Support the statement with examples.

Q20.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Explain any two dramatic changes that occurred in West Punjab in the 19th century, in the field of agriculture.

Short answer (7)

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows: Story of Rinjha: Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility season. Mention any two of its characteristics.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three features of cultivation of millets in India.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three features of commercial farming.

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three features of intensive subsistence farming.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three features of Rabi crop season.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three features of Kharif season of Indian agriculture.

Q27.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three institutional reforms taken for the development of Indian agriculture.

Long answer (8)

Q28.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

The Government of India has invited some suggestions for institutional reforms in agriculture. Propose any five institutional reforms to the Government for the betterment of agriculture.

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

The Government of India has invited some suggestions for technological reforms in agriculture. Propose any five technological reforms to the Government for the betterment of agriculture.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Describe the features of cropping patterns in India.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the importance of agriculture in the Indian Economy.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the features of Commercial Farming.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the initiative taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural production.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(b) ''Agriculture and Industry move hand in hand.'' Justify the statement.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain the features of primitive subsistence and commercial farming in India.

5Minerals and Energy Resources Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (15)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:

  1. Non-metallic
  2. Metallic
  3. Precious
  4. Energy
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank:

  1. Non-Ferrous minerals
  2. Igneous minerals
  3. Energy minerals
  4. Ferrous minerals
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank: _______ are found in the igneous and metamorphic rocks and have no organic origin.

  1. Non-Ferrous minerals
  2. Igneous minerals
  3. Energy minerals
  4. Ferrous minerals
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives. Reason (R): All living things need minerals.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Minerals) - Column II (Major Mines) a. Iron ore - i. Gaya b. Mica - ii. Singarauli c. Bauxite - iii. Chandrapur d. Coal - iv. Maikala

  1. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  2. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  3. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  4. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Minerals): a. Iron ore, b. Mica, c. Bauxite, d. Coal Column II (Major Mines): i. Gaya, ii. Singarauli, iii. Chandrapur, iv. Maikala

  1. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  2. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  3. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  4. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): India has enormous possibilities of production of solar energy. Reason (R): Most of the land area of India falls under the cold zone.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Thermal Power Plant): a. Talcher, b. Ramagundam, c. Bhusawal, d. Vijayawada; Column II (State): i. Telangana, ii. Odisha, iii. Andhra Pradesh, iv. Maharashtra

  1. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
  2. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  3. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  4. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Thermal Power Plant) - Column II (State): a. Talcher - i. Telangana, b. Ramagundam - ii. Odisha, c. Bhusawal - iii. Andhra Pradesh, d. Vijayawada - iv. Maharashtra

  1. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
  2. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  3. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  4. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill the blank. Non Metallic Mineral: Mica, Energy Mineral: …………

  1. Natural Gas
  2. Bauxite
  3. Manganese
  4. Platinum
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I (Minerals): I. Ferrous, II. Non-Ferrous, III. Non-Metallic, IV. Energy Column-II (Examples): a. Coal, b. Granite, c. Bauxite, d. Cobalt

  1. I-b, II-d, III-c, IV-a
  2. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
  3. I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
  4. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option: Column-I (Minerals) with Column-II (Examples): I. Ferrous - a. Coal; II. Non-Ferrous - b. Granite; III. Non-Metallic - c. Bauxite; IV. Energy - d. Cobalt

  1. I-b, II-d, III-c, IV-a
  2. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
  3. I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
  4. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option for the following States' share (in percentage) in the production of 'manganese' in India from the highest to the lowest order.

  1. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Odisha
  2. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Karnataka
  3. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha
  4. Maharashtra, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the highest 'bauxite' producing state of India ?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Jharkhand
  3. Gujarat
  4. Odisha
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of the Ferrous Metal?

  1. Copper
  2. Tin
  3. Bauxite
  4. Nickel

Very short answer (9)

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Name the dam built on River Chenab in India.

Q17.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How is energy a basic requirement for economic development of a country ? Explain with examples.

Q18.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

''India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy.'' Explain the statement with example.

Q19.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

India has great potential of wind power generation. Explain the statement in context of wind energy.

Q20.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

(a) ''Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks.'' Explain the statement with example.

Q21.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Support the statement 'Energy is the key input for sustainable development'.

Q22.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Why is there a pressing need to use non-conventional energy resources? Explain.

Q23.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located.

Q24.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where Singrauli Thermal Plant is located.

Short answer (2)

Q25.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Analyse any three ways to conserve energy resources.

Q26.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three characteristics of Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron-ore belt in India.

Long answer (8)

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the role of petroleum as an important source of energy and describe its distribution in India.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the importance of Bio-gas energy in rural areas.

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Energy is required for all activities. Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Conserving energy is essential for sustainable development. Support the statement with suitable arguments.

Q31.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the role of petroleum in an economy.

Q32.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the main characteristics of minerals.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

"Promotion of energy conservation is important plank of sustainable energy." Explain the statement with examples.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Solar energy has a bright future in India. Explain the statement with examples.

Case-based (5)

Case study · CBSE 2025

Iron Ore. Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50 - 60 per cent). In 2018 - 19, almost the entire production of iron ore (97%) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3%) was from other states.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which iron ore is the maximum iron content found ?

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Kalpakkam – Nuclear Power Plant

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Tarapur – Nuclear Power Plant

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the state where Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant is located.

Case study · CBSE 2024

For Visually Impaired Candidates only

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Name the state where Bailadila iron ore mines are located.

6Manufacturing Industries Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (1)

Q1.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river. Reason (R) : India is the second largest exporter of jute.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Very short answer (6)

Q2.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Why does the textile industry occupy unique position in the Indian economy. Explain.

Q3.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Which is the basic material required for garment manufacturing?

Q4.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Give one example of value addition in the textile industry.

Q5.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where Bengaluru Software Technology Park is located.

Q6.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain the major concerns of Jute Textile industry.

Q7.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why has the iron and steel industry not been able to perform to its full potential? Explain with example.

Short answer (3)

Q8.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the importance of the manufacturing sector in the development of India.

Q9.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

"India's prosperity lies in expanding and diversifying its manufacturing industries." Justify the statement.

Q10.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

'Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of an economic development.' Justify the statement.

Long answer (11)

Q11.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce air pollution.

Q12.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest measures to control it.

Q13.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the importance of manufacturing industry in the Indian economy.

Q14.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How do industries increase air pollution? Suggest any three measures to reduce air pollution.

Q15.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Describe the role of manufacturing industries in the economic development of a country.

Q16.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) How are industries the main source of water pollution? Mention any two suggestions for the conservation of water.

Q17.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) ''Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development of the country.'' Justify the statement.

Q18.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Explain the measures to reduce industrial pollution with examples.

Q19.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

(a) Explain the importance of manufacturing industries.

Q20.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain any five factors affecting the location of industries.

Q21.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

How are industries contributing to the national economy? Explain.

Case-based (5)

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Bengaluru – Software Technology Park

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Noida – Software Technology Park

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

In which state is the Noida Software Technology Park located?

Q25.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where Mumbai Software Technology Park is located.

Case study · CBSE 2022

National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) shows the way. NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environment Management System) 14001. The corporation has a proactive approach for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil, gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants. This has been possible through: (a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment. (b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation. (c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation. (d) Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management. (e) Ecological monitoring, reviews and online database management for all its power stations.

Q26.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Examine the proactive approach of National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC).

7Lifelines of National Economy Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (1)

Q1.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column I (Port): i. Kandla, ii. Mumbai, iii. Visakhapatnam, iv. Kolkata. Column II (Type): 1. Riverine port, 2. Deepest landlocked port, 3. Biggest port, 4. Port developed after independence

  1. i → 4, ii → 3, iii → 2, iv → 1
  2. i → 2, ii → 1, iii → 3, iv → 4
  3. i → 2, ii → 4, iii → 1, iv → 3
  4. i → 1, ii → 2, iii → 4, iv → 3

Very short answer (9)

Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Name the place where international airport is located in Punjab.

Q3.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Examine the significance of pipeline as a means of transportation in the country.

Q4.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Examine the significance of air transport.

Q5.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Examine the significance of railways as a means of transport, with two arguments.

Q6.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the city where Indira Gandhi International Airport is located.

Q7.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Which gauge covers maximum of track length in hilly areas in India?

Q8.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Which gauge has the highest length in India?

Q9.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose) International Airport is located.

Q10.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Which gauge covers maximum of track length in hilly areas in India?

The Indian Railway network Gauge in metres | Route (km) | Running Track (km) | Total Track (km) Broad Gauge (1.676) | 63,491 | 89,521 | 1,17,560 Metre Gauge (1.000) | 3,200 | 3,462 | 3,775 Narrow Gauge (0.762 and 0.610) | 1,751 | 1,752 | 1,901 Total | 68,442 | 94,735 | 1,23,236

Short answer (3)

Q11.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the importance of pipelines as a means of transportation in India.

Q12.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Why is road transport more important than the other means of transportation in India? Explain.

Q13.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the importance of Railways as a means of transportation in India.

Long answer (4)

Q14.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(37.6) In which state is Tuticorin sea port located? (For Visually Impaired Candidates)

Q15.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

How is pipeline transport network important in the transport system of India? Explain with an example.

Q16.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Analyse the problems of Road Transport in India.

Q17.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain the rapid transformation in the communication sector in the modern times.

Case-based (8)

Q18.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Mormugao – Major Sea Port

Q19.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Haldia – Sea Port

Q20.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the state where Haldia Sea Port is located.

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(37.6) In which state is Tuticorin sea port located?

Case study · CBSE 2024

For Visually Impaired Candidates only

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Name the state where Kandla sea port is located.

Case study · CBSE 2022

Lifelines of National Economy. For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space. With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport expanded far and wide. Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other. Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.

Q23.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

How is science an important factor in the development of transport?

Q24.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

How has transport integrated socio-cultural plurality? Explain.

Q25.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Analyse the significance of communication for a nation.

8Development Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (26)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Study the given data carefully and answer the question that follows: Country (Monthly income of citizens in ₹): I II III IV V AY; A: 9,500 10,500 9,800 1,000 10,200 _; B: 500 500 500 500 4,800 _. Identify the average monthly income of citizens in 'country A'.

  1. 8,200
  2. 9,000
  3. 1,000
  4. 9,020
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following reports compare countries using health, education and per capita income?

  1. Human Development Report
  2. Global Trade Report
  3. World Development Report
  4. Economic Survey Report
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: Net attendance ratio is expressed as a ________ of total children in the age group of 6 – 10 years attending school.

  1. Ratio
  2. Percentage
  3. Fraction
  4. Index
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Study the given data carefully and answer the question that follows: Country A has monthly income of citizens in rupees: 9,500, 10,500, 9,800, 1,000, 10,200. Identify the average monthly income of citizens in country A.

  1. 8,200
  2. 9,000
  3. 1,000
  4. 9,020
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Study the given data and answer the question that follow: Comparative Data of few States with Infant Mortality Rate (2020), Literacy Rate (2017-18), and Net Attendance Rate (Class 1 to 5). By how many of the following points does State B's literacy rate exceeds from State A in 2017-18?

  1. 12
  2. 10
  3. 16
  4. 14
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: Infant Mortality Rate indicates the number of children that die before the age of _____ year(s) per 1000 live births in that particular year.

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

World and answer the questions given below: S. No. Country - HDI Rank in the world 1. India - 130 2. Myanmar - 148 3. Nepal - 149 4. Pakistan - 150 Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the [HDI rank]?

  1. Pakistan
  2. India
  3. Nepal
  4. Myanmar
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Study the following World HDI data and answer the questions given below: S. No. Country HDI Rank in the world 1. India 130 2. Myanmar 148 3. Nepal 149 4. Pakistan 150 Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest HDI rank ?

  1. Pakistan
  2. India
  3. Nepal
  4. Myanmar
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest HDI rank?

  1. Pakistan
  2. India
  3. Nepal
  4. Myanmar
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a particular year is called __________.

  1. Per Capita Income
  2. Per Capita Production
  3. Gross National Income
  4. Gross Domestic Production
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

By which organization is the Human Development Report published ?

  1. World Trade Organisation
  2. Amnesty International
  3. United Nations Development Programme
  4. World Health Organisation
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data and answer the question that follows: Age: Total Population, Net Attendance 7 and 8 years of age: 1200, 1000 14 and 15 years of age: 1000, 800 Total: 2200, 1800 The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is __________.

  1. 90 percent
  2. 80 percent
  3. 70 percent
  4. 60 percent
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill the blank. Literacy Rate measures the proportion of literate population in the _____ years and above age group.

  1. 10
  2. 7
  3. 5
  4. 8
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assume there are four families in a locality. If the incomes of these four families in a week are ₹ 2,000, ₹ 5,000, ₹ 3,000 and ₹ 6,000, then the weekly average income of the locality will be

  1. ₹ 4,000
  2. ₹ 5,000
  3. ₹ 2,000
  4. ₹ 1,000
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a key indicator used to measure a country's development?

  1. Primary Production
  2. Secondary Production
  3. Gross Domestic Product
  4. Net Domestic Product
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following definitions is most suitable for the 'Literacy Rate'?

  1. The literate population at the global level
  2. The proportion of literate population in the seven years and above
  3. The total number of children attending school in a region
  4. The average number of schools in a region
Q17.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Study the table given below carefully and answer the question that follows. Country | GNI per capita (2011 PPP $) | HDI Rank (2018) A | 12,707 | 73 B | 6,681 | 130 C | 4,961 | 148 D | 5,005 | 154 E | 3,457 | 143 F | 4,976 | 134 Which of the following country has high Human Development Index Rank in the world?

  1. Country 'A'
  2. Country 'C'
  3. Country 'D'
  4. Country 'E'
Q18.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

On which of the following basis does the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publish the 'Human Development Report' ?

  1. Manufacturing, Infrastructure and Health
  2. Education, Health and Per Capita Income
  3. National Income, Health and Banking
  4. Gross Domestic Product, Technology and Innovation
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. For comparing countries, their __________ is considered to be one of the most important attributes by the World Bank.

  1. Education
  2. Income
  3. Health Status
  4. Living Standard
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Study the given table and answer the question that follows: Some data regarding India and its Neighbours for 2019 Country | GNI per capita (2011 PPP $) | Life Expectancy at birth | Mean Years of Schooling | HDI Rank (2018) Sri Lanka | 12,707 | 77 | 10.6 | 73 India | 6,681 | 69.7 | 6.5 | 130 Myanmar | 4,961 | 67.1 | 5.0 | 148 Pakistan | 5,005 | 67.3 | 5.2 | 154 Nepal | 3,457 | 70.8 | 5.0 | 143 Bangladesh | 4,976 | 72.6 | 6.2 | 134 From the countries listed above, which one has the highest HDI rank?

  1. India
  2. Bangladesh
  3. Sri Lanka
  4. Nepal
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following countries has better rank in Human Development Index?

  1. Afghanistan
  2. Myanmar
  3. India
  4. Nepal
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the following statements about Human Development and choose the correct option: (I) It is the composite Index prepared by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). (II) Parameters to measure it are Longevity, Literacy and Per Capita Income. (III) Countries are ranked according to Developed and Low Developing countries. (IV) World Bank also prepares report of Human Development on the basis of Quality of Life.

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I and III
  4. II and IV
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the following data and answer the question that follow: Some comparative Data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar. How much is the Net Absence Ratio of Haryana? Choose the appropriate option from the following: (Data shows Haryana with Net Attendance Ratio of 61 per 100 person)

  1. 39
  2. 27
  3. 38
  4. 18
Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the following data and answer the question that follow: Some comparative Data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar. Haryana: Infant Mortality Rate 30, Literacy Rate 82, Net Attendance Ratio 61. Kerala: Infant Mortality Rate 7, Literacy Rate 94, Net Attendance Ratio 83. Bihar: Infant Mortality Rate 32, Literacy Rate 62, Net Attendance Ratio 43. How much is the Net Absence Ratio of Haryana? Choose the appropriate option from the following:

  1. 39
  2. 27
  3. 38
  4. 18
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the given data in the table and find out the average monthly income of Country A. Choose the correct option. Monthly Income of Citizens of Two Countries (in Rupees): Country A: 10500, 9800, 9500, 10000, 10500, ?; Country B: 6000, 6000, 6000, 6000, 50000

  1. 9500
  2. 10000
  3. 10500
  4. 10060
Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the given data in the table and find out the average monthly income of Country A. Choose the correct option. Monthly Income of Citizens of Two Countries (in Rupees) I: 10500, II: 9800, III: 9500, IV: 10000, V: 10500, Average Income: ?

  1. 9500
  2. 10000
  3. 10500
  4. 10060

Very short answer (6)

Q27.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

What changes did the Government of India make in its economic policies in the beginning of 1991 ? Explain.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

'Different people have different notions of development.' Explain the statement with examples.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How can a nation achieve a balance between economic growth and environment sustainability? Explain by giving any two arguments.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How does the United Nations Development Program's (UNDP's) developmental criterion differ from the World Bank? Explain.

Q31.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

"Different persons can have different developmental goals." Support the statement with an example.

Q32.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

How was India affected by the Great Depression of 1929? Explain.

Short answer (7)

Q33.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Analyse the issues that necessitate sustainable development for the future.

Q34.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Different persons can have different developmental goals. Explain the statement with examples.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Analyse the statement with suitable arguments.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Why could different persons have different notions of a country's development ? Explain with examples.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Why has the issue of sustainability become essential for development in present times ? Explain with example.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse the development of Punjab, Kerala and Bihar states on the basis of literacy.

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Energy is essential for all economic activities. Explain with examples.

Long answer (1)

Q40.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How is income an important factor in assessing the development of a country? Mention the classification done by the World Bank.

Case-based (2)

Case study · CBSE 2022

National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) shows the way. NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environment Management System) 14001. The corporation has a proactive approach for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil, gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants. This has been possible through: (a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment. (b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation. (c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation. (d) Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management. (e) Ecological monitoring, reviews and online database management for all its power stations.

Q41.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Define sustainable development.

Q42.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

What is the idea behind ISO certification?

9Sectors of the Indian Economy Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (25)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Identify the sector of the economy on the basis of ownership with the help of following information: The government owns most of the assets. Delivery of services in the hands of government. Fair price shops is an example of it.

  1. Private Sector
  2. Public Sector
  3. Joint Sector
  4. Cooperative Sector
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: Net attendance ratio is expressed as a ________ of total children in the age group of 6 – 10 years attending school.

  1. Ratio
  2. Percentage
  3. Fraction
  4. Index
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Identify the sector of economy with the help of information given in the box: Ownership of assets and delivery of services in the hands of private individuals. Activities are guided by the motive to earn profits

  1. Private Sector
  2. Public Sector
  3. Joint Sector
  4. Cooperative Sector
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

  1. Natural Gas
  2. Crude Oil
  3. Coal
  4. Ground Water
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a particular year is called __________.

  1. Per Capita Income
  2. Per Capita Production
  3. Gross National Income
  4. Gross Domestic Production
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data and answer the question that follows : Age Total Population Net Attendance. 7 and 8 years of age 1200 1000. 14 and 15 years of age 1000 800. Total 2200 1800. The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is __________.

  1. 90 percent
  2. 80 percent
  3. 70 percent
  4. 60 percent
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the sector on basis of the following characteristics and choose the correct option : The objective of this sector is to earn profit. This sector is owned by a person or company. Tata Iron and Steel is a example of this sector.

  1. Cooperative Sector
  2. Unorganised Sector
  3. Public Sector
  4. Private Sector
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the odd one out.

  1. Hindustan Computers Limited
  2. Bharti Airtel Limited
  3. Hindustan Unilever Limited
  4. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the sector on basis of the following characteristics and choose the correct option: • The objective of this sector is to earn profit. • This sector is owned by a person or company. • Tata Iron and Steel is an example of this sector.

  1. Cooperative Sector
  2. Unorganised Sector
  3. Public Sector
  4. Private Sector
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (Sector of the Economy) (Example)

  1. Primary Sector – Tailor
  2. Secondary Sector – Fisherman
  3. Tertiary Sector – Astronaut
  4. Primary Sector – Courier
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option regarding 'Body Mass Index' (BMI) from the following.

  1. Assessment of Blood Pressure
  2. Assessment of Blood Sugar Level
  3. Assessment of Body Composition
  4. Assessment of under Nutrition
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following enterprises belongs to the organized sector?

  1. Independent Freelancers
  2. Multinational Corporations
  3. Street Vendors
  4. Cottage Industries
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Primary, Secondary and Tertiary sectors are divided in which one of the following basis?

  1. Nature of employment
  2. Nature of activities
  3. Nature of ownership
  4. Nature of income
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following sectors has the highest share in employment in India ?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Natural products being changed into other forms is known as:

  1. Primary product
  2. Secondary product
  3. Tertiary product
  4. Quarternary product
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a feature of the unorganized sector?

  1. Terms of employment are regular.
  2. People have assured work.
  3. They have some formal processes and procedures.
  4. There are rules and regulations but not followed.
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following sectors contribute highest in the GDP of India?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a developmental goal of the factory workers?

  1. Better wages
  2. Better technology
  3. More hours of work
  4. More labour work
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. Primary Sector - Flower Cultivator
  2. Secondary Sector - Milk Vendor
  3. Tertiary Sector - Fisherman
  4. Manufacturing Sector - Gardener
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Study the data given below in the table and answer the question by selecting the correct option. Which is the most important sector that provides maximum jobs to the people? Table - Workers in different sectors (in millions): Primary: Organized 1, Unorganized 231, Total 232; Secondary: Organized 41, Unorganized 74, Total 115; Tertiary: Organized 40, Unorganized 88, Total 128; Total: Organized 82, Unorganized 393, Total 475

  1. Primary sector, especially organized sector
  2. Secondary sector, especially organized sector
  3. Tertiary sector, especially organized sector
  4. Primary sector, especially unorganized sector
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

A worker in Jaipur of a garment manufacturing industry gets health insurance, provident fund, medical leave, etc. In which of the following sectors is this worker employed?

  1. Primary sector
  2. Non-Governmental sector
  3. Organized sector
  4. Unorganized sector
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the given data in the table and find out the average monthly income of Country A. Choose the correct option. Monthly Income of Citizens of Two Countries (in Rupees) I II III IV V Average Income Country A 10500 9800 9500 10000 10500 ? Country B 6000 6000 6000 6000 50000

  1. 9500
  2. 10000
  3. 10500
  4. 10060
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Study the data given below in the table and answer the question by selecting the correct option. Which is the most important sector that provides maximum jobs to the people? Table Workers in different sectors (in millions) Sector Organized Unorganized Total Primary 1 231 232 Secondary 41 74 115 Tertiary 40 88 128 Total 82 393 475

  1. Primary sector, especially organized sector
  2. Secondary sector, especially organized sector
  3. Tertiary sector, especially organized sector
  4. Primary sector, especially unorganized sector
Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

A worker in Jaipur manufacturing industry gets health insurance, provident fund, medical leave, etc. In which sector is he working?

  1. Primary sector
  2. Non-Governmental sector
  3. Organized sector
  4. Unorganized sector
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

[Worker in garment export industry of Jaipur with health insurance, provident fund, medical leave, etc.] is working in which sector?

  1. Primary sector
  2. Non-Governmental sector
  3. Organized sector
  4. Unorganized sector

Very short answer (4)

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Suggest any two ways to promote Women's Entrepreneurship in the economy.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Name the place where software technology park is located in Tamil Nadu.

Q28.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Suggest any two ways to create more employment in the rural sector.

Q29.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where Mumbai Software Technology Park is located.

Short answer (25)

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

How can service and tourism sector create new jobs? Explain.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the difference between public and private sector of Indian economy with example.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the difference between organised and unorganised sector of economy with example.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Evaluate the contribution of the tertiary sector in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India.

Q34.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Analyse the problem of underemployment in agriculture sector in India.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the role of primary sector in employment generation in India.

Q36.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Analyse the changes taking place in the sectors of the Indian economy.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

"Tertiary sector has a pivotal role in the economy of the country." Support your answer with day-to-day examples.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Give any three suggestions to increase the employment in rural society and explain them.

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

What efforts are being made by the government to increase employment in the urban areas? Explain.

Q40.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

'The development process of India has experienced transformation due to the significant influence of Information Technology (I.T.) and Electronic Industry.' Explain the statement with examples.

Q41.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Examine the role of Public Sector in the development and well-being of a country.

Q42.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Examine the role of Tertiary sector in the development of the country.

Q43.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Examine the role of Public Sector in the development of the country.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Differentiate between primary and secondary sectors with examples.

Q45.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Examine the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India.

Q46.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Differentiate between secondary and tertiary sectors with examples.

Q47.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

How can more employment be created/generated in India? Explain with examples.

Q48.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Why is 'Tertiary Sector' becoming important in India? Explain.

Q49.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Examine the benefits that are enjoyed by the people working in the organized sector.

Q50.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organized and unorganized sector.

Q51.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Describe the impact of flexibility in the labour laws on the workers in India.

Q52.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Which are the two sectors based on the ownership of resources? Explain each of them.

Q53.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

How are primary, secondary and tertiary sectors dependent on each other? Explain.

Q54.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Why do people prefer to work in the organised sector? Explain any three reasons.

Long answer (11)

Q55.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

How are primary sectors different from secondary sectors? Explain with examples.

Q56.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the role of secondary sector in an economy.

Q57.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the social security benefits available in the organized sector.

Q58.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Describe the importance of tertiary sector in the economy.

Q59.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the sectoral activities on the basis of employment.

Q60.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the efforts done by the Indian government towards Right to work.

Q61.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Evaluate the role of the service sector in the development of India.

Q62.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Distinguish between public and private sector of economy with examples.

Q63.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) ''There is a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganised sector.'' Examine the statement with examples.

Q64.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Explain the differences between public and private sector of economic activities.

Q65.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Examine the significance of the tertiary sector in the Indian economy.

Case-based (2)

Case study · CBSE 2025

Organised Sector. Kanta works in the organised sector. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc. It is called Organised Sector because it has some formal processes and procedures. Some of these people may not be employed by anyone but may work on their own, but they too have to register themselves with the government and follow the rules and regulations.

Q66.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Mention any one feature of the working conditions of organised sector.

Q67.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Bengaluru – Software Technology Park

10Money and Credit Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (22)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the given case and choose the correct option: Swapna, a small farmer grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation but midway due to flood, crop fails and her debt increased. Again she has to take loan to manage crops. Suggest Swapna, which of the following sources of loan would be suitable for her.

  1. Friends
  2. Relatives
  3. Moneylenders
  4. Banks
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Swapna, a small farmer grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation but midway due to flood, crop fails and her debt increased. Again she has to take loan to manage crops. Suggest Swapna, which of the following sources of loan would be suitable for her.

  1. Friends
  2. Relatives
  3. Moneylenders
  4. Banks
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following case and choose the correct option: Megha has taken a loan of ₹ 5 lakhs from bank to purchase a house. The annual rate on the loan is 12% and loan is to be repaid in 5 years in monthly instalments. The 12% interest charged by the bank to Megha is related to which of the following?

  1. Collateral
  2. Cost of Credit
  3. Duration of Loan
  4. Documentation
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following case and choose the correct option: Megha has taken a loan of rupees 5 lakhs from bank to purchase a house. The annual rate on the loan is 12% and loan is to be repaid in 5 years in monthly instalments. The 12% interest charged by the bank to Megha is related to which of the following?

  1. Collateral
  2. Cost of Credit
  3. Duration of Loan
  4. Documentation
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from government banks? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option: I. Lack of collateral II. Complicated procedure III. Higher cost of borrowing IV. Lack of awareness

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources to meet their credit needs?

  1. Poor households
  2. Households with few assets
  3. Both poor households and households with few assets
  4. Both well-off households and households with few assets
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following sources of credit in the most to least order to meet the credit requirement of rural households in India and choose the correct option: I. Government II. Cooperative Banks and Societies III. Moneylenders IV. Relatives and friends

  1. III, II, I, IV
  2. III, II, IV, I
  3. I, III, II, IV
  4. I, III, IV, II
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Why is it not easy to get loans from the formal sector ? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option : I. Availability of Banks II. Availability of Collateral III. Long and Complicated Loan Process IV. Awareness of Borrower

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the primary purpose of loan activities offered by banks?

  1. To compete with other financial institutions
  2. To generate profits for the primary sector only
  3. To increase income of MNCs
  4. To support economic growth
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following banks in India controls the issuance of currency and regulates the credit system in the country?

  1. Punjab National Bank
  2. Indian Bank
  3. Reserve Bank of India
  4. State Bank of India
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following situation regarding credit and identify the positive impact of credit. Salim obtains credit to meet the working capital needs of production. The credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses and complete production on time. Impacts:

  1. The burden of credit will increase on Salim.
  2. Salim's income will increase.
  3. The production will decrease.
  4. Salim may get stuck in a debt trap.
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Reason (R): In India the rupee is authorized by the State Governments.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Banks are not ready to lend money to certain borrowers. Reason (R): Some people do not have collateral.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following situation regarding credit and identify the positive impact of credit. Salim obtains credit to meet the working capital needs of production. The credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses and complete production on time. What is the impact?

  1. The burden of credit will increase on Salim.
  2. Salim's income will increase.
  3. The production will decrease.
  4. Salim may get stuck in a debt trap.
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In one of the small villages, a farmer borrows money from the village moneylender at a high monthly interest rate but is not able to repay it back. Next, he borrows it from a bank at a lower interest rate. Gradually he earns and pays back the loan to the moneylender and the bank. Which of the following best describes the role of the bank in this credit situation ?

  1. The bank acts as a cooperative lender.
  2. The bank facilitates a debt-trap situation.
  3. The bank ensures a fair exchange of goods.
  4. The bank saves the farmer from debt-trap.
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Rural poor families are still dependent on informal sources of credit. Reason (R): For obtaining loan from banks, collateral and special documents are required.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q17.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Select the formal sources of credit from the given sources and choose the correct option. I. Bank II. Moneylender III. Cooperatives IV. Businessman

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Only I and IV
Q18.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Select the formal sources of credit from the given sources and choose the correct option.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Only I and IV
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the modern form of currency?

  1. Paper notes
  2. Gold coins
  3. Silver coins
  4. Copper coins
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following categories of urban households take the highest percentage of loan from the formal sector?

  1. Poor households
  2. Households with few assets
  3. Well-off households
  4. Rich households
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following aspects was the base of the Bretton Woods system?

  1. Military system
  2. Cultural system
  3. Economic system
  4. Historical system
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following organisations issues the currency notes in India?

  1. The Central Government of India
  2. The NITI Aayog
  3. The Finance Ministry
  4. The Reserve Bank of India

Very short answer (6)

Q23.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Formal credit pushes the credit buyer into a situation from which it is very difficult to get out. Explain this statement.

Q24.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Differentiate between formal and informal sources of loans.

Q25.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

How does the use of money make it easier to exchange things? Explain with examples.

Q26.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

How is money an essential feature of money?

Q27.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

How is an essential feature of money?

Q28.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Analyse the situation in which credit pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is painful.

Short answer (12)

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the role of Reserve Bank of India in the Indian economy.

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Why is credit important for economic development? Explain.

Q31.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

How does Self-Help-Group work in rural areas? Explain.

Q32.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the different terms of credit.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain any three functions of money as a medium of exchange.

Q34.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Examine the importance of bank deposits.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Examine the significance of credit in economic development of the country.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Explain.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Why is cheap and affordable credit important for the country's development? Explain.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain the role of 'Self Help Groups' in the rural society.

Q39.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Differentiate between formal and informal sources of Credit.

Q40.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

How does a bank work as a key component of the financial system? Explain.

Long answer (5)

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Justify the role of 'Self Help Groups' in the rural economy.

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

(a) How does credit play a positive and a negative role? Explain with examples.

Q43.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

How are self-help groups the building blocks of the rural poor? Explain with examples.

Q44.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Explain with an example the role of credit for development.

Q45.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Explain various functions of banks in India.

Case-based (12)

Case study · CBSE 2025

Loans From Cooperatives Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Cooperative societies come under which source of credit?

Q47.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(34.1) 'Cooperative society' is an example of which source of 'credit'?

Q48.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(34.1) How do 'Krishak Cooperatives' secure funds for providing loans to their members ?

Case study · CBSE 2025

Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.

Q49.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Cooperative societies come under which source of credit ?

Q50.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies.

Q51.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of farmers.

Q52.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(36.1) 'Cooperative society' is an example of which source of 'credit' ?

Q53.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(35.1) 'Cooperative society' is an example of which source of 'credit'?

Q54.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(36.1) How do 'Krishak Cooperatives' secure funds for providing loans to their members ?

Q55.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

How do 'Krishak Cooperatives' secure funds for providing loans to their members?

Case study · CBSE 2025

Arun supervises the work of one farm labourer. Arun has seven acres of land. He is one of the few persons in Sonpur to receive bank loan for cultivation. The interest rate on the loan is 8.5 per cent per annum, and can be repaid anytime in the next three years. Arun plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the crop. He then intends to store the rest of the potatoes in a cold storage and apply for a fresh loan from the bank against the cold storage receipt. The bank offers this facility to farmers who have taken crop loan from them.

Q56.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

What type of loan is taken by Arun from the bank?

Q57.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

What is the interest rate on Arun's loan?

11Globalisation and the Indian Economy Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (17)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The removal of barriers on foreign trade and investment by the Indian government has been called as:

  1. Industrialisation
  2. Nationalisation
  3. Privatisation
  4. Liberalisation
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the main purpose of a trade barrier in global trade? Choose the correct option.

  1. To promote the growth of foreign companies in a country
  2. To control the production of domestic industries
  3. To regulate foreign trade into the country
  4. To stop foreign trade between countries
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Statement I: Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process. Statement II: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.

  1. Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
  2. Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
  3. Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
  4. Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following organisations has its headquarter in Brussels?

  1. United Nations Organisation
  2. European Union
  3. Non-Alignment Movement
  4. South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Statement I: Information and communication technology stimulate the process of globalisation. Statement II: It is used to contact each other, receive information instantly and communicate with remote areas.

  1. Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
  2. Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
  3. Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
  4. Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank : The process of removing barriers on foreign trade and investment by the government is known as _________.

  1. Import Tax
  2. Export Tax
  3. Liberalisation
  4. Industrialisation
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match the following aspects of globalization with their descriptions and choose the correct option. List-I (Global Aspect): I. Technological Advancement, II. Liberalization of Trade, III. Cultural Exchange, IV. Multinational Corporations List-II (Description): a. Interaction of ideas, values and traditions, b. Companies operating in many countries, c. Innovation in manufacturing, communication and information, d. The removal of restriction on trade

  1. I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
  2. I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
  3. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
  4. I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match the following aspects of globalization with their descriptions and choose the correct option. List-I (Global Aspect) List-II (Description) I. Technological Advancement a. Interaction of ideas, values and traditions II. Liberalization of Trade b. Companies operating in many countries III. Cultural Exchange c. Innovation in manufacturing, communication and information IV. Multinational Corporations d. The removal of restriction on trade

  1. a b c d
  2. c d a b
  3. d c b a
  4. b a d c
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a significant aspect of globalisation?

  1. Uniform Culture
  2. Environmental Support
  3. Support to Domestic Market
  4. Access to New Markets
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements best describes the meaning of 'Globalization' ?

  1. Removal of tax barriers on trade
  2. Providing higher standard of living
  3. Process of rapid integration between countries
  4. Taking special steps to attract foreign companies
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is included in 'liberalization' ?

  1. Promoting trade barriers
  2. Removing trade barriers
  3. Controlling the other country through trade
  4. Increasing import, export duty on goods
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a challenge of Globalisation?

  1. Access to New Markets
  2. Access to New Talent
  3. International Recruitment
  4. Disproportionate Growth
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Why did the Indian government liberalize trade regulations in 1991?

  1. Government wanted foreign exchange equivalent to Indian Currency.
  2. Government wanted to maintain good relations with Western Countries.
  3. Government wanted Indian producers to compete in the World Market.
  4. Government wanted to provide socio-economic justice to all.
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Cargill Foods, a very large MNC, is the largest producer of edible oil in India. Which one of these countries does it belong to?

  1. India
  2. France
  3. Great Britain
  4. United States of America
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which one of the following ways has information and communication technology stimulated the globalisation process the most?

  1. Access foods across countries
  2. Access raw material across countries
  3. Access services across countries
  4. Access information instantly across countries
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Information and Communication technology industry has accelerated the process of globalisation the most by which way?

  1. Access foods across countries
  2. Access raw material across countries
  3. Access services across countries
  4. Access information instantly across countries
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Information and Communication technology has accelerated the process of globalization the most by providing which of the following?

  1. Access foods across countries
  2. Access raw material across countries
  3. Access services across countries
  4. Access information instantly across countries

Very short answer (9)

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

How did the process of liberalisation initiated in India in the 1990s, promote globalisation? Explain.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

How did improvement in transportation technology stimulate the globalisation process? Explain.

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Why did the Indian Government restrict foreign trade and foreign investment between 1947 - 1991 ? Explain.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain any two benefits of globalisation.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How is technology an important factor of globalisation ? Explain with examples.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

''Foreign trade results in connecting the markets in different countries.'' Support the statement in context of globalisation.

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the steps taken by Indian government for globalisation in 1991.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How have the developments in information and communication technology been the major factor to enable globalisation ? Explain.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Analyse the steps taken by the Government of India to promote foreign investment in the country.

Short answer (6)

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

New technology has helped to connect the world. Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Advancement in technology has stimulated the globalization process. Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three impacts of globalisation on Indian agriculture.

Q30.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

How is information technology connected with globalisation? Explain.

Q31.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

How is information technology connected with globalization? Explain.

Q32.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Examine the debate that took place in the World Trade Organisation for the developing countries.

Long answer (9)

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

"Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalisation process." Explain the statement with examples.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyse the role of Liberalisation in the globalisation.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Examine the transformations observed in India's trade since 1991.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

How do Multinational Corporations (MNCs) interlink production across countries? Explain with examples.

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Analyse the impact of globalisation on the Indian economy.

Q38.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Examine the factors which facilitate globalization in India.

Q39.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Assess globalisation in terms of foreign trade and integration of markets.

Q40.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

To what extent has globalisation contributed to the development of the country? Assess.

Q41.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Assess the impact of globalisation in India.

12Consumer Rights Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (6)

Q1.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data and answer the question that follows: Age Total Population Net Attendance 7 and 8 years of age 1200 1000, 14 and 15 years of age 1000 800, Total 2200 1800. The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is __________.

  1. 90 percent
  2. 80 percent
  3. 70 percent
  4. 60 percent
Q2.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option regarding 'Body Mass Index' (BMI) from the following.

  1. Assessment of Blood Pressure
  2. Assessment of Blood Sugar Level
  3. Assessment of Body Composition
  4. Assessment of under Nutrition
Q3.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a developmental goal of the factory workers?

  1. Better wages
  2. Better technology
  3. More hours of work
  4. More labour work
Q4.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Select which among the following cannot be purchased through money. Choose the correct option:

  1. I and III
  2. III and IV
  3. I and IV
  4. I and II
Q5.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Select which among the following cannot be purchased through money. Choose the correct option: I. Full protection from infectious diseases II. A pollution-free atmosphere III. High quality education IV. A luxury home

  1. I and III
  2. III and IV
  3. I and IV
  4. I and II
Q6.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Find out which among the following cannot be purchased through money. Choose the correct option: I. Full protection from infectious diseases II. A pollution-free atmosphere III. High quality education IV. A luxury home

  1. I and III
  2. III and IV
  3. I and IV
  4. I and II

Short answer (1)

Q7.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well. Support the statement with example.

13The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (15)

Q1.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866?

  1. Sardinia-Piedmont
  2. Venetia
  3. Sicily
  4. Papal State
Q2.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option: I. Defeat of Napoleon in the battle of Leipzig II. Beginning of struggle for Greek independence III. Formation of customs union Zollverein IV. Signing of Treaty of Vienna

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. I, II, IV, III
  3. II, I, III, IV
  4. II, I, IV, III
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which country was the first to give women the right to vote in the world?

  1. England
  2. Ireland
  3. Finland
  4. Scotland
Q4.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The German philosopher 'Johann Gottfried' belonged to which one of the following schools of thought?

  1. Socialist
  2. Liberalist
  3. Romanticist
  4. Marxist
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): 'The Act of Union 1707' between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of 'United Kingdom of Great Britain'. Reason (R): England wanted to impose its influence on Scotland.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q6.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option. I. Treaty of Constantinople II. Hamburg granted autonomy to Hungary III. Balkan Conflict IV. Napoleonic Civil Code

  1. IV, II, I & III
  2. III, II, IV & I
  3. IV, I, II & III
  4. I, IV, III & II
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both statements and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): On Prussian initiative 'Zollverein' Custom Union was formed. Reason (R): It was to create unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
  4. (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both statements and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): On Prussian initiative 'Zolleverin' Custom Union was formed. Reason (R): It was to create unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
  4. (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions. Read the following reasons for its spread and choose the correct option: I. Due to Cultural exchange; II. Due to Silk route; III. Due to trade & travellers; IV. Due to European efforts

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and III are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): On Prussian initiative 'Zolleverin' Custom Union was formed. Reason (R): It was to create unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital. Choose the correct option:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
  4. (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following incidents in chronological order and choose the correct option. I. French Revolution II. Napoleon's invasion of Italy III. Unification of Italy IV. Vienna Peace Treaty

  1. I, II, IV, III
  2. II, IV, I, III
  3. II, III, I, IV
  4. I, III, II, IV
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Who among the following hosted the 'Vienna Congress' in 1815 ?

  1. Chancellor Duke Metternich
  2. Ernst Renan
  3. William I
  4. Otto von Bismarck
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following ideologies were the European Governments driven by after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815?

  1. Socialism
  2. Conservatism
  3. Liberalism
  4. Romanticism
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option: (I) Napoleonic wars (II) The Treaty of Vienna (III) Greek Struggle for Independence (IV) Slav Nationalism in Ottoman Empire

  1. III, II, I and IV
  2. I, II, III and IV
  3. IV, III, II and I
  4. IV, II, III and I
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not true about the female allegory of France?

  1. She was named Marianne
  2. She took part in the French Revolution
  3. She was a symbol of national unity
  4. Her images were marked on coins and stamps

Very short answer (3)

Q16.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

"Conservative regimes set up in Europe in 1815 were autocratic." Support the statement by giving any two arguments.

Q17.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the impact of French Revolution on other European countries.

Q18.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Analyse the role of Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unite the regions of Italy.

Short answer (4)

Q19.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse the process of German Unification.

Q20.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

"Ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism." Examine the statement.

Q21.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Describe any three measures that were introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.

Q22.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the role of Otto Von Bismark in the Unification of Germany.

Long answer (18)

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Describe the process of unification of Germany.

Q24.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Describe the role of Balkans in the outbreak of World War – I.

Q25.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Describe the various measures that French revolutionaries introduced to create a sense of collective identity among the French people.

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the nationalist tensions emerged in the Balkan region by the end of nineteenth century.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the social, political and economic aspects of liberalism in the early nineteenth century Europe.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the process of the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

(a) Analyse administrative system rational and efficient. OR (b) How was liberalism allied to national unity in Europe in the early decades of the 19th century? Analyse.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Analyse the role of Giuseppe Mazzini in the unification of Italy.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How did art and culture play an important role in arousing the spirit of nationalism in 19th century Europe? Explain in the context of romanticism.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How did the French Revolution spread the spirit of nationalism in Europe? Explain with suitable arguments.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How did the decade of the 1830s bring great difficulties to Europe? Explain.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) ''The French Revolution created a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.'' Explain the statement with suitable arguments.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) The mission and the destiny of the French nation was to liberate the peoples of Europe. Support the statement in context of impact of French revolution.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Evaluate the role of Giuseppe Mazzini in the unification of the Italian Republic.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

''The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789.'' Evaluate the statement.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Explain the measures introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the people during the French Revolution.

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

(a) Explain the process of unification of Italy.

Q40.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

European Governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism in 1815. Support this statement.

Case-based (1)

Case study · CBSE 2025

The Revolutionaries. During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom. Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.

Q41.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Mention any one political demand of the liberals.

14Nationalism in India Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (14)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option: I. Second Round Table Conference II. Formation of Depressed Class Association III. Lahore Session of Indian National Congress IV. Formation of Awadh Kissan Sabha

  1. I, II, IV, III
  2. I, II, III, IV
  3. IV, III, II, I
  4. IV, III, I, II
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option: I. Salt Satyagraha II. Kheda Satyagraha III. Rowlatt Satyagraha IV. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Satyagraha

  1. II, I, III, IV
  2. II, IV, III, I
  3. III, II, IV, I
  4. II, I, IV, III
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Column A (Writer) - Column B (Contribution):

  1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak – Gulamgiri
  2. Jyotiba Phule – Amar Jiban
  3. Raja Rammohan Roy – Sambad Kaumudi
  4. Tarabai Shinde – Istri Dharam Vichar
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following countries has a democratic government since independence?

  1. Syria
  2. Cuba
  3. India
  4. Afghanistan
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which among the following newspapers is related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak ?

  1. Hindustan
  2. Bangla Patrika
  3. Veer Bhoomi
  4. Kesari
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option : I. Bardoli Satyagraha II. Rowlatt Satyagraha III. Champaran Satyagraha IV. Kheda Satyagraha

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. III, II, I, IV
  3. II, I, IV, III
  4. III, IV, II, I
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (Author) (Book)

  1. Jyotiba Phule - Amar Jiban
  2. Sudarshan Chakra - Sachhi Kavitayen
  3. Rash Sundari Debi - Gulamgiri
  4. Kashi Baba - Chotte aur Bade Sawal
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following languages is included in Eighth Schedule in Indian Constitution?

  1. Hariyanavi
  2. Rajasthani
  3. Garhwali
  4. Odia
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events of Indian National Movement in chronological order and choose the correct option. I. Formation of Swaraj Party II. Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress III. Gandhi-Irwin Pact IV. Formation of Depressed Class Association

  1. II, III, I and IV
  2. I, II, IV and III
  3. I, III, II and IV
  4. IV, III, II and I
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option, related to the founders of the 'Swaraj Party' within the Congress.

  1. Subhas Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Acharya Kripalani and Jayaprakash Narayan
  3. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
  4. Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option. I. Formation of Khilafat Committee in Bombay II. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre III. Bardoli Satyagraha IV. Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. II, I, IV, III
  3. I, II, IV, III
  4. III, IV, II, I
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. In the beginning of the 19th century, _________ a girl married in a very orthodox household wrote an autobiography called 'Amar Jiban'.

  1. Pandita Ramabai
  2. Rashsundari Devi
  3. Tarabai Shinde
  4. Kailashbashini Debi
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following aspects was common among the writings of Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?

  1. Demanded economic equality for masses.
  2. Highlighted the experiences of women.
  3. Raised awareness about cultural heritage.
  4. Motivated Indians for their national freedom.
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who among the following led the peasant movement in Bardoli in 1928?

  1. Baba Ramchandra
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Subhash Chandra Bose
  4. Vallabhbhai Patel

Very short answer (10)

Q15.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the role of anti-colonial movements in the freedom struggle.

Q16.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the role of anti-colonial movements in the rise of nationalism in India.

Q17.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

How did reinterpretation of history become a means of creating a sense of nationalism by the end of the 19th century in India? Explain.

Q18.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

"Role of women is gradually enhancing in the politics of the country." Examine the statement.

Q19.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Why did the feeling of alienation increase among the Sri Lankan Tamils in 1956? Explain.

Q20.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why did Indian merchants and industrialists support the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.

Q21.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927.

Q22.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Mention the views of Mahatma Gandhi on Satyagraha.

Q23.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the State where Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.

Q24.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Mention the two Satyagrahas of Mahatma Gandhi for the peasantry class before 1920.

Short answer (14)

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the statement in the context of Non-Cooperation Movement.

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the role of the Indian Press in the national movement.

Q27.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? Analyse any three reasons.

Q28.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Analyse the role of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Analyse the role of peasant communities in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Analyse the impacts of Gandhi-Irwin pact on the Indian freedom struggle.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

(a) How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a sense of collective belonging in the National Movement ? Explain with examples.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

(a) Explain the role of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement, with examples.

Q33.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

(a) Explain any three effects of Non-Co-operation Movement on the Indian economy.

Q34.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

It was necessary to preserve folk traditions to inculcate a sense of pride in national identity in reference to India.

Q35.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Justify the statement in reference to India.

Q36.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

To national identity and restore a sense of pride in onestatement in reference to India.

Q37.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Salt, a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. Explain this statement with three arguments.

Q38.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Cooperation Movement became wider with the integration of the Awadh Peasants Struggles. Explain the statement with three arguments.

Long answer (9)

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Describe the role of Giuseppe Mazzini in the Italian unification.

Q40.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

"The Gandhian idea of Satyagraha, emphasized the power of truth and struggle against injustice." Explain the statement with examples.

Q41.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

'There were variety of cultural processes through which Indian Nationalism captured people's imagination.' Explain the statement with examples.

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Analyse the role of the business classes in Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q43.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919. Explain.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Mahatma Gandhi's ideas about self-reliance were well understood by Muslim peasants. Justify this statement.

Q45.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Examine the progress of the Civil Disobedience Movement in the countryside.

Q46.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

''Gandhiji felt the Khilafat issue as an opportunity to bring Hindus and Muslims under the umbrella of a unified national movement.'' Explain the statement.

Q47.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. Examine the statement in context of Civil Disobedience Movement.

Case-based (13)

Case study · CBSE 2026

The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of World War II created widespread discontentment in India. This led Gandhiji to launch a movement calling for complete withdrawal of the British from India. The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July 1942, passed the historic 'Quit India' resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8th August 1942 in Bombay, the All India Congress Committee endorsed the resolution which called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country. It was on this occasion that Gandhiji delivered the famous 'Do or Die' speech. The call for 'Quit India' almost brought the state machinery to a standstill in large parts of the country as people voluntarily threw themselves into the thick of the movement. People observed hartals, and demonstrations and processions were accompanied by national songs and slogans. The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely, Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Orissa. The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.

Q48.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

How did the failure of the Cripps Mission contribute to the launch of the Quit India Movement?

Case study · CBSE 2026

Quit India Movement: The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of World War II created widespread discontentment in India. This led Gandhiji to launch a movement calling for complete withdrawal of the British from India. The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July 1942, passed the historic 'Quit India' resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8th August 1942 in Bombay, the All India Congress Committee endorsed the resolution which called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country. It was on this occasion that Gandhiji delivered the famous 'Do or Die' speech. The call for 'Quit India' almost brought the state machinery to a standstill in large parts of the country as people voluntarily threw themselves into the thick of the movement. People observed hartals, and demonstrations and processions were accompanied by national songs and slogans. The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely, Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Orissa. The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.

Q49.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

How did the failure of the Cripps Mission contribute to the launch of the Quit India Movement?

Case study · CBSE 2026

The sense of collective belonging As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became more and more aware of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism. Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. By the end of the nineteenth century many Indians began feeling that to instill a sense of pride in the nation, Indian history had to be thought about differently. The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves. In response, Indians began looking into the past to discover India's great achievements. They wrote about the glorious developments in ancient times when art and architecture, science and mathematics, religion and culture, law and philosophy, crafts and trade had flourished. This glorious time, in their view, was followed by a history of decline, when India was colonised. These nationalist histories urged the readers to take pride in India's great achievements in the past and struggle to change the miserable conditions of life under British rule.

Q50.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

How did icons help to unite Indians during the freedom struggle?

Q51.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(8.1) How did icons help to unite Indians during the freedom struggle?

Case study · CBSE 2025

Print and Censorship The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press. During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

Q52.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act? Explain any two reasons.

Case study · CBSE 2025

The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press. During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

Q53.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act ? Explain any two reasons.

Q54.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The place where Gandhiji broke Salt Law.

Q55.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

The place where Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place.

Q56.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the state where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.

Q57.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Name the place where Indian National Congress session took place in December, 1920.

Case study · CBSE 2022

The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January, 1930. We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We believe also that if any government deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally, and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British connection to achieve full independence.

Q58.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Why was freedom considered an inalienable right of the Indian people?

Q59.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Why was Purna Swaraj considered essential by the people of India?

Q60.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain the significance of the Lahore Session of Congress (1930).

15The Making of a Global World Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (16)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Silver from Peru and Mexico enhanced Europe's wealth in the sixteenth century. Reason (R): Europe used this silver to finance its trade with Asia.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Silver from Peru and Mexico enhanced Europe's wealth in the sixteenth century. Europe used this silver to finance its trade with Asia. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The discovery of sea routes to Asia and America shrank the pre-modern world in the sixteenth century. Reason (R): During this period European entry into Indian ocean expanded trade.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option: I. Poverty and hunger II. Slaves for sale III. Wide spread of diseases IV. Religious conflicts and persecution

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The author of [The Columbian Exchange] is :

  1. Marco Polo
  2. Columbus
  3. Vasco da Gama
  4. Alfred Crosby
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In the mid-16th century, diseases like smallpox reached America through which of the following?

  1. Spanish soldiers
  2. French merchants
  3. Portuguese sailors
  4. British tourists
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which disease was brought to America in the later half of the sixteenth century ?

  1. Cholera
  2. Smallpox
  3. Jaundice
  4. Malaria
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

America in the later half of the sixteenth century ?

  1. Cholera
  2. Smallpox
  3. Jaundice
  4. Malaria
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

'Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions.' Read the following reasons for its spread and choose the correct option. I. Due to Cultural exchange II. Due to Silk route III. Due to trade & travellers IV. Due to European efforts

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and III are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

'Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions.' Read the following reasons for its spread and choose the correct option.

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and III are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

__________ from India and Southeast Asia travelled through 'Silk Route' to other parts of the world.

  1. Gold and silver ornaments
  2. Clothes and spices
  3. Grain and pulses
  4. Iron and other metals
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. ___________ from India and Southeast Asia travelled through 'Silk Route' to other parts of the world.

  1. Gold and silver ornaments
  2. Clothes and spices
  3. Grain and pulses
  4. Iron and other metals
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following religions emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the 'silk routes'?

  1. Hinduism
  2. Christianity
  3. Buddhism
  4. Jainism
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option from the following regarding Central Powers in the First World War:

  1. Germany, Austria-Hungary and Ottoman Turkey
  2. Britain, France and Russia
  3. Italy, Japan and Russia
  4. France, Austria-Hungary and China
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

There were three important developments that greatly shrank the pre-modern world. Identify the incorrect one from the following options:

  1. The flow of trade
  2. The flow of labour
  3. The flow of capital
  4. The flow of technology
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following aspects was the base of the Bretton Woods system?

  1. Military system
  2. Cultural system
  3. Economic system
  4. Historical system

Very short answer (13)

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Food offered many examples of long distance cultural exchange during pre-modern times. Explain the statement with any two examples.

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Why did many Europeans migrate to America after sixteenth century? Explain.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Mention any two economic impacts of the First World War on India.

Q20.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How was the Indian subcontinent crucial for the trade network during the sixteenth century? Explain.

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

"Trade and Cultural exchange always went hand in hand." Explain the statement in the context of pre-modern world.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How did Europeans help in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century? Explain.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

''Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe.'' Analyse the statement.

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Why was the Indian subcontinent central to the flows of the trading network before the sixteenth century ? Explain.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Why did people flee Europe for America in the nineteenth century? Explain.

Q26.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Explain any two methods that were used by the Europeans for the recruitment of the indentured labours.

Q27.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

State the names and countries of the two hostile groups that turned each other in the First World War.

Q28.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Explain.

Q29.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Mention any two impacts of the First World War on Indian Economy.

Short answer (1)

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

How was the 'Silk Route' an example of vibrant pre-modern trade? Explain.

Long answer (1)

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How did tension in the Balkan region lead to the First World War? Explain.

16The Age of Industrialisation Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (5)

Q1.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following religions emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the 'silk routes' ?

  1. Hinduism
  2. Christianity
  3. Buddhism
  4. Jainism
Q2.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In the 1920s, which country had the important feature of large-scale production?

  1. United States of America
  2. Poland
  3. France
  4. Japan
Q3.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In the 1920s, which one of the following countries was an important feature for mass production?

  1. United States of America
  2. Poland
  3. France
  4. Japan
Q4.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which one of the following countries was an important feature mass production in the 1920s?

  1. United States of America
  2. Poland
  3. France
  4. Japan
Q5.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who among the following improved the steam engine?

  1. James Watt
  2. Thomas Edison
  3. Benjamin Franklin
  4. Alexander Fleming

Very short answer (4)

Q6.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Mention any two economic impacts of the First World War on India.

Q7.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

''Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe.'' Analyse the statement.

Q8.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Mention any two changes that occurred in West Punjab in the 19th century.

Q9.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

''Industrialisation and Urbanisation go hand in hand.'' Explain.

Long answer (1)

Q10.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain the process of unification of Germany.

Case-based (3)

Case study · CBSE 2023

Yet, till the First World War, industrial growth was slow. The war created a dramatically new situation. With British mills busy with war production to meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India declined. Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs: jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots, horse and mule saddles and a host of other items. New factories were set up and old ones ran multiple shifts. Many new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours. Over the war years industrial production boomed. After the war, Manchester could never recapture its old position in the Indian market. Unable to modernise and compete with the US, Germany and Japan, the economy of Britain crumbled after the war. Cotton production collapsed and exports of cotton cloth from Britain fell dramatically. Within the colonies, local industrialists gradually consolidated their position, substituting foreign manufacturers and capturing the home market.

Q11.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Why did Manchester imports decline in India?

Case study · CBSE 2023

The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in 1854 and it went into production two years later. By 1862, four mills were at work with 94,000 spindles and 2,150 looms. Around the same time, jute mills came up in Bengal, the first being set up in 1855 and another one seven years later, in 1862. In north India, the Elgin Mill was started in Kanpur in the 1860s, and a year later the first cotton mill of Ahmedabad was set up. By 1874, the first spinning and weaving mill of Madras began production.

Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(34.1) When was the first cotton mill set up in India?

Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

When was the first cotton mill set up in India?

17Print Culture and the Modern World Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (15)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. Ram Chaddha – Bengal Gazette
  2. Gangadhar Bhattacharya – Kesari
  3. Jyotiba Phule – Gulamgiri
  4. Rashsundari Devi – Padmarg
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Column – A (Writer) Column – B (Contribution)

  1. Ram Chaddha – Bengal Gazette
  2. Gangadhar Bhattacharya – Kesari
  3. Jyotiba Phule – Gulamgiri
  4. Rashsundari Devi – Padmarg
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The author of is:

  1. Marco Polo
  2. Columbus
  3. Vasco da Gama
  4. Alfred Crosby
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Assume you are doing research on 15th century print culture. Which of the following would be the most significant advantage for your research?

  1. Easier access to rare manuscripts
  2. Reduced need for libraries
  3. Increase in the ability to copy text by hand
  4. Increased speed and accuracy of print
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of Jikji of Korea carefully and choose the correct option: I. It is one of the oldest existing printed books in the world. II. It contains the main beliefs of Christianity. III. Its second volume is available in the National Library of France. IV. It was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of Gutenberg's Bible carefully and choose the correct option: Characteristics: I. It is one of the oldest existing printed books in the world. II. It contains the main beliefs of Christianity. III. Its second volume is available in the National Library of France. IV. It was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of Jikji of Korea carefully and choose the correct option: Characteristics: I. It is one of the oldest existing printed books in the world. II. It contains the main beliefs of Christianity. III. Its second volume is available in the National Library of France. IV. It was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which among the following newspapers is related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak?

  1. Hindustan
  2. Bangla Patrika
  3. Veer Bhoomi
  4. Kesari
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? List-I (Author) List-II (Book)

  1. Jyotiba Phule – Amar Jiban
  2. Sudarshan Chakra – Sachhi Kavitayen
  3. Rash Sundari Debi – Gulamgiri
  4. Kashi Baba – Chotte aur Bade Sawal
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Who among the following published 'Samvad Kaumudi'?

  1. Rashsundari Debi
  2. Tarabai Shinde
  3. Raja Rammohun Roy
  4. Ram Chaddha
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Who among the following said – ''Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.'' ?

  1. Martin Luther
  2. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. Johannes Gutenberg
  4. Rashsundari Devi
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. In the beginning of the 19th century, _________ a girl married in a very orthodox household wrote an autobiography called 'Amar Jiban'.

  1. Pandita Ramabai
  2. Rashsundari Devi
  3. Tarabai Shinde
  4. Kailashbashini Debi
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following aspects was common amongst the writings of Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?

  1. Demanded economic equality for masses.
  2. Highlighted the experiences of women.
  3. Raised awareness about cultural heritage.
  4. Motivated Indians for their national freedom.
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following aspects was common among the writings of Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?

  1. Demanded economic equality for masses.
  2. Highlighted the experiences of women.
  3. Raised awareness about cultural heritage.
  4. Motivated Indians for their national freedom.
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following books was printed first by Gutenberg?

  1. Chapbooks
  2. Amar Jivan
  3. Bible
  4. Almanac

Short answer (3)

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Evaluate the role of print in the French Revolution.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Print culture created the favourable conditions for the French Revolution. Explain the statement with examples.

Q18.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

How did print come into existence in Europe? Explain.

Long answer (2)

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the measures taken by the colonial government to censor the press in India and analyse their effects on the nationalist movement.

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Analyse the contribution of Johann Gutenberg in the development of the printing press.

Case-based (13)

Case study · CBSE 2025

The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press. During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and newspapers ?

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

What method did the colonial government employ to keep track of Indian newspapers?

Case study · CBSE 2025

Print and Censorship The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press. During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

Q23.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Why was the power of the printed word most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print?

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

What method did the colonial government employ to keep track of Indian newspapers?

Case study · CBSE 2025

Print Culture and the French Revolution Many historians have argued that print culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred. Some arguments have been usually put forward in this context. First: print popularised the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Collectively, their writings provided a critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism. They argued for the rule of reason rather than custom, and demanded that everything be judged through the application of reason and rationality. They attacked the sacred authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on tradition. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely; and those who read these books saw the world through new eyes, eyes that were questioning, critical and rational. Second: print created a new culture of dialogue and debate. All values, norms and institutions were re-evaluated and discussed by a public that had become aware of the power of reason, and recognised the need to question existing ideas and beliefs. Within this public culture, new ideas of social revolution came into being.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

What impact did the ideas of Enlightenment thinkers have on society?

Case study · CBSE 2024

Why Newspapers? 'Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade inhabitant of Poona intends to publish a Newspaper in the Marathi Language with a view of affording useful information on every topic of local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics, curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially... the patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and welfare of the people is earnestly solicited.' Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6 January, 1849 'The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role of the Opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is of critically examining government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy implementation. These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence.' Native Opinion, 3 April, 1870

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Analyse the primary objective proposed by Ranade for publishing Marathi Language newspaper.

Q27.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Explain the main reason of publishing newspaper by Krishnaji?

Case study · CBSE 2024

After the Revolt of 1857, the attitude to freedom of the press changed. Enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the 'native' press. As vernacular newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial government began debating measures of stringent control. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, modelled on the Irish Press Laws. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. From now on the government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(34.1) On which rule was the 'Vernacular Press Act' based ?

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(35.1) On which rule was the 'Vernacular Press Act' based?

Case study · CBSE 2024

From 1780, James Augustus Hickey began to edit the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that described itself as 'a commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none'. So it was private English enterprise, proud of its independence from colonial influence, that began English printing in India. Hickey published a lot of advertisements, including those that related to the import and sale of slaves. But he also published a lot of gossip about the Company's senior officials in India. Enraged by this, Governor-General Warren Hastings persecuted Hickey, and encouraged the publication of officially sanctioned newspapers that could counter the flow of information that damaged the image of the colonial government. By the close of the eighteenth century, a number of newspapers and journals appeared in print. There were Indians, too, who began to publish Indian newspapers. The first to appear was the weekly Bengal Gazette, brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya, who was close to Raja Rammohan Roy.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(34.1) In which language was 'Bengal Gazette' edited by James Augustus Hickey published ?

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which language was 'Bengal Gazette' edited by James Augustus Hickey published?

Case study · CBSE 2024

Print Comes to India From 1780, James Augustus Hickey began to edit the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that described itself as 'a commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none'. So it was private English enterprise, proud of its independence from colonial influence, that began English printing in India. Hickey published a lot of advertisements, including those that related to the import and sale of slaves. But he also published a lot of gossip about the Company's senior officials in India. Enraged by this, Governor-General Warren Hastings persecuted Hickey, and encouraged the publication of officially sanctioned newspapers that could counter the flow of information that damaged the image of the colonial government. By the close of the eighteenth century, a number of newspapers and journals appeared in print. There were Indians, too, who began to publish Indian newspapers. The first to appear was the weekly Bengal Gazette, brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya, who was close to Raja Rammohan Roy.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

(35.1) In which language was 'Bengal Gazette' edited by James Augustus Hickey published ?

Case study · CBSE 2023

Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade inhabitant of Poona intends to publish a Newspaper in the Marathi Language with a view of affording useful information on every topic of local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics, curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially... the patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and Welfare of the People is earnestly solicited. Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6 January, 1849. The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role of the Opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is of critically examining government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy implementation. These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence. Native Opinion, 3 April, 1870

Q33.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the main reason of publishing newspaper by Krishnaji.

18Power Sharing Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (28)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The civil war in Sri Lanka resulted due to failure of political accommodation of ethnicity. Reason (R): The distrust between the Sinhala and Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Belgium's power sharing arrangements were designed to accommodate its linguistic and cultural divisions. Reason (R): Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government ?

  1. Unitary
  2. Presidential
  3. Federal
  4. Parliamentary
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following countries is an example of sharing of power between the national and state governments to account for internal diversity?

  1. United States of America
  2. Australia
  3. Belgium
  4. Switzerland
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following organisations has its headquarter in Brussels?

  1. United Nations Organisation
  2. European Union
  3. Non-Alignment Movement
  4. South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

  1. Bhojpuri
  2. Magadhi
  3. Rajasthani
  4. Tamil
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka ?

  1. Tamil-speakers
  2. Sinhala-speakers
  3. Telugu-speakers
  4. English-speakers
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which one of the following organs of India are women taking advantage of reservation ?

  1. Municipality
  2. Legislative Council
  3. Rajya Sabha
  4. Judiciary
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following statements about power sharing arrangement in Belgium and choose the correct option. I. Brussels has a separate govt. with equal representation. II. Dutch & French speaking ministers are equal in Central Govt. III. Community Govt. is elected by People belonging to one language. IV. Series of majoritarian measures adopted in Belgium.

  1. I, II and IV
  2. I, III and IV
  3. II, III and IV
  4. I, II and III
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries has 'one-party system'?

  1. United States of America
  2. United Kingdom
  3. India
  4. China
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following statements and choose the correct term mentioned in the Indian Constitution from the given options: · There is no official religion for the Indian State. · There is freedom to profess, practise and propagate any religion in India.

  1. Republic
  2. Sovereign
  3. Socialist
  4. Secular
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Identify the primary objective of power sharing arrangements in Belgium from the following options.

  1. Establishing a unitary form of government.
  2. Centralized political control of government.
  3. Establishing cultural and educational matters of Dutch.
  4. Accommodating linguistic and regional interest.
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following: Column-I (Subject List in the Indian Constitution) with Column-II (Subject): I. Union List - a. Trade Union; II. State List - b. Banking; III. Concurrent List - c. Police; IV. Residuary List - d. Internet

  1. I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b
  2. I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
  3. I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
  4. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the arguments given in the favour of power sharing and choose the correct option. I. Reduces the likelihood of bias. II. Barricades the decision-making process. III. Accommodates diversities. IV. Increases the participation of people in power.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which one of the following institutions in India was a system of reservation for women made by amending the Constitution in 1992?

  1. Lok Sabha
  2. Rajya Sabha
  3. Legislative Council
  4. Panchayat
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of democracy and choose the correct option. I. Free and fair elections II. Equality before law III. Dignity of a person IV. Majority rule

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q17.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements, I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: Division of power is good for democratic systems. Statement II: It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

  1. Statement I is true, but II is false.
  2. Statement I is false, but II is true.
  3. Statements I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I.
  4. Statements I and II are true, but II is not the correct explanation of I.
Q18.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Multi-party system has been adopted in India. Reason (R): It is capable of accommodating all the social and geographical differences in India.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q19.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following provisions regarding Secularism in the Indian Constitution and choose the correct option. I. The Indian State has not adopted any religion as its official religion. II. The Constitution gives freedom to all the citizens to practice and propagate any religion. III. The Constitution declares any kind of discrimination done on the basis of religion to be legal. IV. It gives the government the right to intervene in religious matters for ensuring equality within religious communities.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

There are two statements given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Belgium amended their constitution four times. Reason (R): Amendments were to enable everyone to live together in the same country.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of a country that came together as a federation?

  1. India
  2. USA
  3. Belgium
  4. Spain
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column I: i. Union List, ii. State List, iii. Concurrent List, iv. Residuary Subjects Column II: 1. Agriculture, 2. Computer Software, 3. Banking, 4. Education

  1. i→3, ii→1, iii→4, iv→2
  2. i→4, ii→3, iii→2, iv→1
  3. i→2, ii→4, iii→3, iv→1
  4. i→1, ii→2, iii→3, iv→4
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an example of coming together federation?

  1. India
  2. USA
  3. Belgium
  4. Spain
Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option: (I) Majoritarianism is the real spirit of democracy. (II) It creates balance and harmony in different groups. (III) It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups. (IV) Power sharing is the essence of democracy.

  1. I, II and III
  2. II, III and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. I, II and IV
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries has two party system?

  1. China
  2. Russia
  3. America
  4. India
Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which type of government is likely to be more acceptable to the people in the world?

  1. Democratic
  2. Military
  3. Dictatorship
  4. Theocratic
Q27.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What percentage of the population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region?

  1. 40%
  2. 80%
  3. 59%
  4. 70%
Q28.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option as your answer: Assertion (A): India has a multiparty system. Reason (R): It is because of the social and geographical diversities in India.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Very short answer (6)

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe any two provisions made in the Constitution to establish federalism.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the effectiveness of horizontal distribution of power in the context of India.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

How is the distribution of power among different social groups beneficial for democracy? Explain.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How is horizontal power sharing different from vertical? Explain.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Why is power shared among different social groups? Explain.

Q34.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain.

Short answer (5)

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Why is power sharing essential for the success of democracy? Explain.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three characteristics of the Indian federal system.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe three provisions through which Belgium solved its problem.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Democratic government systems ensure accommodation of social diversities. Support this statement with examples.

Q39.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Explain the role of Election Commission in the registration and recognition of political parties in India.

Case-based (8)

Case study · CBSE 2026

Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Last year, we studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Explain the term 'Balance of Power'.

Case study · CBSE 2026

Power Sharing: Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Last year, we studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

Q41.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Explain the term 'Balance of Power'.

Case study · CBSE 2026

Forms of Power-sharing The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political power. For a long time, it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-government. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies. Therefore, it follows that in a democracy, political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible.

Q42.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

How does power sharing promote stability of political order?

Q43.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(28.1) How does power sharing promote stability of political order?

Case study · CBSE 2025

An Experiment in Brazil A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

Q44.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Explain the meaning of participatory democracy.

Case study · CBSE 2024

Panchayati Raj "We need to give more power to the panchayats to realise the dream of Mahatma Gandhi and the hopes of the makers of our Constitution, Panchayati Raj establishes true democracy. It restores power to the only place where power belongs in a democracy – in the hands of the people. Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to reduce corruption and increase administrative efficiency. When people participate in the planning and implementation of developmental schemes, they would naturally exercise greater control over these schemes. This would eliminate the corrupt middlemen. Thus, Panchayati Raj will strengthen the foundations of our democracy."

Q45.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

How does giving power to Panchayats relate to the vision of Mahatma Gandhi?

Case study · CBSE 2023

Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ethnic composition of this small country is complex. 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent of the people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch-speaking.

Q46.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(36.1) Explain the ethnic composition of Belgium.

Q47.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the ethnic composition of Belgium.

19Federalism Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (23)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the given statements regarding decentralisation in India and choose the correct option: i. Rural local government is known as Panchayati Raj. ii. Each village or group of villages have Gram Panchayat. iii. Panch and Sarpanch of villages are selected by Election Commission. iv. Panchayat works under the supervision of Gram Sabha.

  1. only i, iii and iv are correct.
  2. only i, ii and iv are correct.
  3. only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  4. only i, ii and iii are correct.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the given statements regarding urban local government and choose the correct option: I. Municipalities are setup in towns. II. Big cities have Municipal Corporation. III. Municipal chairperson is the head of Block Samiti. IV. The officer in Municipal Corporation is called as Mayor.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government?

  1. Unitary
  2. Presidential
  3. Federal
  4. Parliamentary
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:

  1. Canada - Unitary
  2. Bolivia - Federal
  3. Australia - Unitary
  4. Spain - Federal
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: (Country) (System)

  1. Canada - Unitary
  2. Bolivia - Federal
  3. Australia - Unitary
  4. Spain - Federal
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following countries is an example of sharing of power between the national and state governments to account for internal diversity?

  1. United States of America
  2. Australia
  3. Belgium
  4. Switzerland
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Bhojpuri
  2. Magadhi
  3. Rajasthani
  4. Tamil
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following statements and choose the correct term mentioned in the Indian Constitution from the given options. · There is no official religion for the Indian State. · There is freedom to profess, practise and propagate any religion in India.

  1. Republic
  2. Sovereign
  3. Socialist
  4. Secular
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (Subject List in the Indian Constitution) (Subject)

  1. Union List Subjects – Communication
  2. State List Subjects – Education
  3. Concurrent List Subjects – Adoption
  4. Residuary Subjects – Marriages
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following: Column-I (Subject List in the Indian Constitution): I. Union List, II. State List, III. Concurrent List, IV. Residuary List Column-II (Subject): a. Trade Union, b. Banking, c. Police, d. Internet

  1. I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b
  2. I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
  3. I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
  4. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following is responsible for resolving disputes between Centre and States?

  1. Finance Commission of India
  2. Supreme Court of India
  3. President of India
  4. Prime Minister of India
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

'Education' falls under which one of the following lists given in the Indian Constitution ?

  1. Union List
  2. State List
  3. Concurrent List
  4. Residuary Subjects
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the most appropriate option regarding the division of legislative rights in India. Subject list in Indian Constitution

  1. Union List – Defence and Commerce
  2. State List – Police and Agriculture
  3. Concurrent List – Forest and Communication
  4. Residuary Subjects – Computer Software and Trade
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a scheduled language as per the Constitution of India?

  1. Bhojpuri
  2. Garhwali
  3. Nepali
  4. Rajasthani
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the most appropriate option regarding the division of legislative rights in India. Subject list in Indian Constitution | Subjects (A) Union List – Defence and Commerce (B) State List – Police and Agriculture (C) Concurrent List – Forest and Communication (D) Residuary Subjects – Computer Software and Trade

  1. (A)
  2. (B)
  3. (C)
  4. (D)
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the most appropriate option regarding the division of legislative rights in India.

  1. Union List – Defence and Commerce
  2. State List – Police and Agriculture
  3. Concurrent List – Forest and Communication
  4. Residuary Subjects – Computer Software and Trade
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column I: i. Union List, ii. State List, iii. Concurrent List, iv. Residuary Subjects. Column II: 1. Agriculture, 2. Computer Software, 3. Banking, 4. Education

  1. i → 3, ii → 1, iii → 4, iv → 2
  2. i → 4, ii → 3, iii → 2, iv → 1
  3. i → 2, ii → 4, iii → 3, iv → 1
  4. i → 1, ii → 2, iii → 3, iv → 4
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following came together to form a union?

  1. India
  2. USA
  3. Belgium
  4. Spain
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

There are two statements given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Belgium amended their constitution four times. Reason (R): Amendments were to enable everyone to live together in the same country.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match column − A with column − B and choose the correct option: Column − A (Subjects): (I) Banks (II) Agriculture (III) Education (IV) Computer; Column − B (List): 1. Concurrent List 2. Union List 3. State List 4. Residuary Subjects

  1. I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2
  2. I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2
  3. I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4
  4. I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Identify the administrative level of Indian Government with the help of the information given in the box and choose the correct option: 1. Power shared between Central to Local Government. 2. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them. 3. It is called a three tier government.

  1. Dictatorial System
  2. Unitary Federal System
  3. Decentralized System
  4. Imperialistic System
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?

  1. I, III and IV
  2. I, II and IV
  3. II, III and IV
  4. I, II and III
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state? I. More powers with Centre II. Residuary subjects with Centre III. Equal subjects with Centre and States IV. Currency and Railways with Centre

  1. I, III and IV
  2. I, II and IV
  3. II, III and IV
  4. I, II and III

Very short answer (3)

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

(a) Examine the role of the Constitution in the Federal System of India in two points.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Why was the need for decentralisation recognized in the Indian Constitution ? Explain.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Mention the formation of Zilla Parishad.

Short answer (10)

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

How does the Indian Constitution define the distribution of powers between the centre and the states? Explain with examples.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

How does the 'system of three lists' function in Indian federalism? Explain with examples.

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the vertical distribution of power given in the Indian Constitution.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

How does the Indian Constitution ensure the division of powers between the Union and State Governments ? Explain.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the main features of the Indian federal system.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

''Federal form of government is in direct contrast to the Unitary form of government.'' Explain the statement.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

''Sharing of power between the Union Government and State Governments is basic to the structure of our Constitution.'' Support the statement.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three characteristics of the Indian federal system.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three constitutional provisions that make India a secular state.

Q36.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Explain the three characteristics of a unitary system of government.

Case-based (5)

Case study · CBSE 2025

A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

Q37.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government ?

Q38.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the above example of Brazil.

Case study · CBSE 2025

An Experiment in Brazil A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

Q39.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government?

Case study · CBSE 2025

Decentralisation in India The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of state governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly. Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus, there was very little decentralisation in effective terms. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.

Q40.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

At how many levels has decentralisation of power been done in the Indian Constitution?

Case study · CBSE 2024

Panchayati Raj 'We need to give more power to the panchayats to realise the dream of Mahatma Gandhi and the hopes of the makers of our Constitution. Panchayati Raj establishes true democracy. It restores power to the only place where power belongs in a democracy – in the hands of the people. Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to reduce corruption and increase administrative efficiency. When people participate in the planning and implementation of developmental schemes, they would naturally exercise greater control over these schemes. This would eliminate the corrupt middlemen. Thus, Panchayati Raj will strengthen the foundations of our democracy.'

Q41.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

How does giving power to Panchayats relate to the vision of Mahatma Gandhi?

20Gender, Religion and Caste Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (18)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): The civil war in Sri Lanka resulted due to failure of political accommodation of ethnicity. Reason (R): The distrust between the Sinhala and Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The civil war in Sri Lanka resulted due to failure of political accommodation of ethnicity. Reason (R): The distrust between the Sinhala and Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which one of the following organs of India are women taking advantage of reservation ?

  1. Municipality
  2. Legislative Council
  3. Rajya Sabha
  4. Judiciary
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements represent gender equality ?

  1. Restricting women from outside work
  2. Restricting women to household chores.
  3. Providing more rights to men.
  4. Providing voting rights equally to men and women.
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka ?

  1. Tamil-speakers
  2. Sinhala-speakers
  3. Telugu-speakers
  4. English-speakers
Q6.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following languages is included in Eighth Schedule in Indian Constitution?

  1. Hariyanavi
  2. Rajasthani
  3. Garhwali
  4. Odia
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements, best describes women empowerment?

  1. Encouraging men to take leadership roles.
  2. Promoting superiority of women over men.
  3. Ensuring equal opportunities and rights for women.
  4. Limiting the rights of men in all spheres.
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which one of the following institutions in India was a system of reservation for women made by amending the Constitution in 1992 ?

  1. Lok Sabha
  2. Rajya Sabha
  3. Legislative Council
  4. Panchayat
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which of the following regions was women representation the highest in their respective National Parliaments (2018) ?

  1. Nordic countries
  2. America (North and South)
  3. Europe
  4. Asia
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following provisions regarding Secularism in the Indian Constitution and choose the correct option. I. The Indian State has not adopted any religion as its official religion. II. The Constitution gives freedom to all the citizens to practice and propagate any religion. III. The Constitution declares any kind of discrimination done on the basis of religion to be legal. IV. It gives the government the right to intervene in religious matters for ensuring equality within religious communities.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a scheduled language as per the Constitution of India ?

  1. Bhojpuri
  2. Garhwali
  3. Nepali
  4. Rajasthani
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements, I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: Women are now actively contributing to various professions including roles as doctors, engineers, lawyers, managers and university teachers. Statement II: Political expression of gender division and political mobilization helped to improve women's role in public life.

  1. Statement I is true, but II is false.
  2. Statement I is false, but II is true.
  3. Statements I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I.
  4. Statements I and II are true, but II is not the correct explanation of I.
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which one of the following regions is the participation of women in public life the highest?

  1. Nordic countries
  2. Arab states
  3. European countries
  4. Asian countries
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted 'Tamil' as the official language of the State. Reason (R): The Govt. of Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian measures.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following languages was declared as the official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?

  1. Tamil
  2. Sinhala
  3. Hindi
  4. English
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is not true?

  1. The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion
  2. The Constitution allows us to practice, profess and propagate any religion or not to follow any
  3. The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities
  4. As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is not true? (a) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion. (b) The Constitution allows us to practice, profess and propagate any religion or not to follow any. (c) The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities. (d) As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics.

  1. The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion.
  2. The Constitution allows us to practice, profess and propagate any religion or not to follow any.
  3. The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities.
  4. As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics.
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What percentage of the population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region?

  1. 40%
  2. 80%
  3. 59%
  4. 70%

Very short answer (11)

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Suggest two measures to ensure equal opportunities for women in all professions.

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Suggest two measures to involve women in educational development.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Suggest two ways to improve womens' participation in sports leadership roles.

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Suggest any two measures to empower women in the field of technology.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Suggest any two ways to promote women in various professional fields.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Suggest any two measures to remove gender inequality.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Suggest any two measures to increase the number of women in legislatures of India.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

'Role of women is gradually enhancing in the politics of the country.' Examine the statement.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Describe the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka.

Q28.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

"Women face discrimination in various ways in our society." Explain any two ways.

Q29.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Mention different aspects in which women are discriminated against in India.

Short answer (2)

Q30.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Suggest three steps to enhance the literacy rate among women in India.

Q31.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Suggest any three ways to enhance political participation of women in India.

Case-based (5)

Case study · CBSE 2024

How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example, languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under 'Hindi'. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these, 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called 'Scheduled Languages'. Others are called 'Non-Scheduled Languages'. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

How many languages were recorded as mother tongues in the 2011 Census of India?

Q33.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the importance of language diversity in India.

Case study · CBSE 2024

Linguistic diversity of India. How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example, languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under 'Hindi'. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these, 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called 'Scheduled Languages'. Others are called 'Non-Scheduled Languages'. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

How many languages were recorded as mother tongues in the 2011 Census of India?

Case study · CBSE 2023

LANGUAGE DIVERSITY OF INDIA. How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under 'Hindi'. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called 'Scheduled Languages'. Others are called 'Non-Scheduled Languages'. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Explain the importance of language diversity in India.

Case study · CBSE 2023

Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ethnic composition of this small country is complex. 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent of the people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch-speaking.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the ethnic composition of Belgium.

21Political Parties Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (17)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Find the odd one out from the following:

  1. Communist Party of India (M) & Bharatiya Janata Party
  2. Rashtriya Janata Dal & Janata Dal
  3. Nationalist Congress Party & Shiv Sena
  4. United Democratic Party & National People's Party
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Find the odd one out regarding the Political Parties of India:

  1. Bharatiya Janata Party & Aam Aadmi Party
  2. Indian National Lok Dal & Jananayak Janata Party
  3. National's People's Party & United Democratic Party
  4. Rashtriya Janata Dal & Loktantrik Samajwadi Party
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following are the main components of a political party? Choose the correct option: I. Leaders II. Active members III. Followers IV. Pressure groups

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: Political Party and State

  1. Janata Dal (Secular) - Bihar
  2. Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party - Goa
  3. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam - Andhra Pradesh
  4. All India Forward Bloc - Punjab
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:

  1. Janata Dal (Secular) - Bihar
  2. Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party - Goa
  3. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam - Andhra Pradesh
  4. All India Forward Bloc - Punjab
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

To reform the party system, which of the following tasks have been made compulsory for the political parties ? Choose the most appropriate option. I. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to file income tax returns. II. It is now compulsory for all parties to have one-third women candidates. III. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to hold their organisational election. IV. It is now compulsory for all candidates to disclose information about pending criminal cases against them through affidavit.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Every party in India has to register with the Election Commission. Reason (R) : The Government provides election symbols to all political parties in India.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries has 'one-party system'?

  1. United States of America
  2. United Kingdom
  3. India
  4. China
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

How do Political Parties ensure accountability to the public? Choose the most suitable option from the following.

  1. Through Press Conferences
  2. Through Social Media Campaigns
  3. Through encouraging Partisanship
  4. Through Elections and Voter Support
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Modern democracy cannot function without political parties. Reason (R): Elected representatives will be accountable only to their constituencies, not towards the country.

  1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries has a two-party system ?

  1. China
  2. Pakistan
  3. United States of America
  4. France
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following steps has been taken by the Election Commission of India to reform political parties ?

  1. Amended the Constitution to prevent defection.
  2. Candidates will have to give the details of criminal cases on affidavit.
  3. Candidates will have to give details of their property on affidavit.
  4. It has been made mandatory for all parties to conduct organizational elections and file income tax returns.
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Multi-party system has been adopted in India. Reason (R): It is capable of accommodating all the social and geographical differences in India.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following States is ruled by a regional party?

  1. Haryana
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Odisha
  4. Rajasthan
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries adopted multi-party system?

  1. USA
  2. India
  3. China
  4. United Kingdom
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries has two party system?

  1. China
  2. Russia
  3. America
  4. India
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option as your answer: Assertion (A): India has a multiparty system. Reason (R): It is because of the social and geographical diversities in India.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

Very short answer (2)

Q18.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain.

Q19.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

How do political parties shape public opinion?

Short answer (15)

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

(a) Explain the importance of political parties in democracy. OR (b) Why did India adopt the multiparty system? Explain with suitable arguments.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the importance of political parties in democracy.

Q22.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Describe three main functions of political parties.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain any three responsibilities carried out by the political parties in a democracy.

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three functions of the Political Parties.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three challenges faced by the Political Parties.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse the role of political parties in shaping public opinion.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain the main functions of political parties.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse the role of political parties in making laws in India.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse any three challenges faced by political parties in India.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse the role of political parties in shaping the outcomes of democracy.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse any three functions of political parties.

Q32.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Analyze the need of Political Parties in the Democracy.

Q33.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the role of Regional Parties in Indian democracy.

Q34.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the merits of Multi Party System.

Long answer (10)

Q35.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the role of political parties in a democracy.

Q36.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Political parties are one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. Examine the statement.

Q37.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the role of political parties in strengthening democracy.

Q38.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the importance of political parties in Indian democracy.

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the role of the Party System in Indian democracy.

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the role of political parties in ensuring good governance.

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

(a) Explain any five challenges faced by political parties in India.

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain any five major functions of the political parties.

Q43.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Political parties have become all-pervasive in democratic systems all over the world. Explain the statement with examples.

Q44.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Political parties have become all-pervasive in democratic systems across the world. Explain the statement with examples.

Case-based (1)

Case study · CBSE 2023

The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As we have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs that every representative government has. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.

Q45.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the meaning of a political party.

22Outcomes of Democracy Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (7)

Q1.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a fundamental principle of democracy?

  1. Rule of single individual
  2. Rule with hereditary norms
  3. Rule of people with freedom
  4. Rule of military chiefs
Q2.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following statements regarding democracy and choose the correct option. I. Promotes equality among citizens II. Government by few individuals III. Protection of human rights IV. Ensures checks and balance system

  1. I, II and III
  2. II, III and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. I, II and IV
Q3.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following statements regarding democracy and choose the correct option.

  1. I, II and III
  2. II, III and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. I, II and IV
Q4.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of democracy and choose the correct option. I. Free and fair elections II. Equality before law III. Dignity of a person IV. Majority rule

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements, I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: Division of power is good for democratic systems. Statement II: It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

  1. Statement I is true, but II is false.
  2. Statement I is false, but II is true.
  3. Statements I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I.
  4. Statements I and II are true, but II is not the correct explanation of I.
Q6.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which type of government is likely to be more acceptable to the people in the world?

  1. Democratic
  2. Military
  3. Dictatorship
  4. Theocratic
Q7.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not true about a democratic government?

  1. Democratic government is a legitimate government.
  2. Democratic government is a responsive government.
  3. Democratic government is a representative government.
  4. It does not allow room to correct mistakes.

Very short answer (5)

Q8.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship.

Q9.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Democracy is a better form of government compared with any other alternative. Examine the statement.

Q10.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Communalism is harmful to the nation. Explain.

Q11.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

How does the quality of democracy depend on the degree of public participation?

Q12.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Mention the two conditions that democracy must fulfil in order to achieve a harmonious social life.

Short answer (4)

Q13.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

How does democracy establish an accountable, responsible and legitimate governance ? Explain.

Q14.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

How is a democracy accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens? Analyse.

Q15.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Democracy's capacity to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored. Analyse this statement with three examples.

Q16.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Democracy's capability to produce its own supporters is in itself an outcome and cannot be ignored. Analyse this statement with three examples.

Long answer (18)

Q17.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

(a) Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy. OR (b) Explain any five values of democracy.

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How is democracy better than other types of government? Analyse.

Q20.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Democracy is a better form of govt. than dictatorship. Analyse.

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

How are democratic governments accountable, responsible and legitimate? Explain.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Dignity and freedom of peoples are the basis of democracy. Explain the statement.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

How do we assess democracy's outcomes? Explain.

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

"Democracy's ability to generate its own support is also its outcome and it cannot be ignored." Explain the statement.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

"Accommodation of social diversity is the key feature of democracy." Explain the statement in the Indian context.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Analyse the importance of democracy in accommodation of social diversity.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Why do people prefer democracy over other alternatives? Explain with suitable arguments.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Democracy stands ahead of any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Explain the statement with examples.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(a) Explain with examples the role of democracy in the reduction of inequality and poverty.

Q30.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Analyse the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities.

Q31.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Democracy is a better form of government. Support this statement.

Q32.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

"Democracy stands much superior to any other forms of governments in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual." Support the statement with arguments.

Q33.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Analyse the reasons for the overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.

Q34.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Democracy is a better form of government than any other. Analyse this statement.

Case-based (1)

Case study · CBSE 2025

A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Explain the meaning of participatory democracy.

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