StudyOSStudyOS CBSE Study Material, Class 5–12

Class 12 Political Science Previous Year Questions, Chapter-wise (2022-2026)

CBSE Class 12 · 761 Questions · 15 Chapters · Free PDF

Every CBSE Class 12 Political Science board exam question from 2022-2026 that we have on file, sorted by NCERT chapter and then by type: MCQs and assertion-reason, very short, short and long answers, and case studies. Each question is tagged with its year and marks. A question repeated across paper sets appears once. Questions that depend on a figure from the original paper are left out. Questions only, no answers.

⬇ Download PDF (34 pages)Free, no sign-in.

Practise each chapter with free notes, mind maps and graded MCQs.

Practise Class 12 Political Science →
  1. The End of Bipolarity (56)
  2. Contemporary Centres of Power (57)
  3. Contemporary South Asia (59)
  4. International Organisations (50)
  5. Security in the Contemporary World (47)
  6. Environment and Natural Resources (40)
  7. Globalisation (53)
  8. Challenges of Nation Building (36)
  9. Era of One-Party Dominance (57)
  10. Politics of Planned Development (43)
  11. India's External Relations (60)
  12. Challenges to and Restoration of the Congress System (36)
  13. The Crisis of Democratic Order (42)
  14. Regional Aspirations (44)
  15. Recent Developments in Indian Politics (81)

1The End of Bipolarity Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (14)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following was not a republic of the Soviet Union ?

  1. Tajikistan
  2. Uzbekistan
  3. Afghanistan
  4. Azerbaijan
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Who among the following was the General Secretary of the Communist Party of Soviet Union in 1985 ?

  1. Joseph Stalin
  2. Mikhail Gorbachev
  3. Leonid Brezhnev
  4. Nikita Khrushchev
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Identify the correct trio of Baltic Republics:

  1. Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
  2. Slovenia, Estonia, Lithuania
  3. Slovenia, Romania, Estonia
  4. Estonia, Romania, Latvia
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is NOT a consequence of 'Shock Therapy'?

  1. The value of the Rouble, the Russian currency declined.
  2. The economy of the entire region was ruined.
  3. The system of social welfare got strengthened.
  4. The collective farm system disintegrated.
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order: (i) Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared that Soviet Union was disbanded (ii) Mikhail Gorbachev became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of Soviet Union (iii) Soviet Revolution in Russia (iv) Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement was made. Choose the correct option:

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
  4. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order: (i) Mikhail Gorbachev became General Secretary of the Communist Party (ii) Socialist Revolution in Russia (iii) The Berlin Wall was broken by the people (iv) Disintegration of the USSR

  1. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  4. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the group of three Republics of the USSR which declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded.

  1. Russia, Tajikistan, Belarus
  2. Ukraine, Kazakhstan, Georgia
  3. Russia, Ukraine, Belarus
  4. Armenia, Georgia, Belarus
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order: (i) Mikhail Gorbachev became General Secretary of the Communist Party (ii) Socialist Revolution in Russia (iii) The Berlin Wall was broken by the people (iv) Disintegration of the USSR Choose the correct option:

  1. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  4. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in the chronological order: (i) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (ii) Russian Revolution (iii) End of Civil War in Tajikistan (iv) Fall of the Berlin Wall

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  3. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in the chronological order: (i) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (ii) Russian Revolution (iii) End of Civil War in Tajikistan (iv) Fall of the Berlin Wall Choose the correct option:

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  3. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which two republics of Russia have had violent secessionist movements?

  1. Chechnya and Azerbaijan
  2. Croatia and Uzbekistan
  3. Chechnya and Dagestan
  4. Dagestan and Croatia
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): The Soviet system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Reason (R): The Soviet Union became a great power after the Second World War.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence: Mikhail Gorbachev was ___________.

  1. General Secretary of the Communist Party of USSR
  2. the founder of the Communist Party of Russia
  3. a leader of Western European countries
  4. a leader against reforms in the USSR
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Gorbachev's policies to normalise relations with the West and democratise and reform the Soviet Union had some other effects that no one anticipated. Reason (R): The people in the East European countries which were part of the Soviet bloc, had started to support Gorbachev in his every decision.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Very short answer (7)

Q15.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Name any four republics of the Soviet Union.

Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which year did the Second World War end?

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25.

Q17.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which year was the Berlin Wall built?

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25.

Q18.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which year did the Soviet Union disintegrate?

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25.

Q19.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Name the leader who became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985.

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25.

Q20.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Name any four Republics of erstwhile USSR.

Q21.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Analyse any two factors that strengthened relations between India and Russia.

Short answer (16)

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any four features of the Soviet system that made the life of people difficult.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Soviet system was to ensure the welfare of the people. Support the statement with four examples.

Q24.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Why could the reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev not save the disintegration of Soviet Union? Explain any two reasons.

Q25.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any four effects of the shock therapy after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any four reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Describe any four changes that occurred in the world after the end of the Cold War.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Indo-Russian relations are embedded in the history of trust and common interests. Support the statement with four examples.

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Give any four examples of the Russian Revolution.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Was Shock therapy necessary for making a transition from Socialist economy to Capitalist economy? Support your answer with two arguments.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

State any four changes that have occurred in the world after the end of the Cold War.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Explain any two reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Explain any two consequences of the systematic destruction of the old system of social welfare due to shock therapy.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Explain any two causes for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe the role of Gorbachev to reform the Soviet system.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe any four outcomes of the shock therapy introduced in former Soviet countries.

Q37.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Evaluate the strength of Russia after the disintegration of USSR.

Long answer (19)

Q38.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

How was the Soviet System responsible for the disintegration of USSR? Explain.

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Why is 'Shock Therapy' considered a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system ? Explain any three reasons.

Q41.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain any four consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q42.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain any four reasons for good and friendly relations between India and Russia.

Q43.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Examine any three reasons responsible for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q44.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Highlight the reasons for the tensions and conflicts faced by any three former Soviet Republics.

Q45.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

What were the major reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991? Support your answer with three arguments.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Highlight any four consequences for shock therapy.

Q47.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Analyse any three effects of shock therapy after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q48.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

The history of Indo-Russian relations is a history of mutual trust and shared interests. Support the statement with appropriate arguments.

Q49.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

India and Russia's relations have been a history of mutual trust and shared interests. Support the statement with the help of any three appropriate arguments.

Q50.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

The history of India and Russia relations is a history of mutual trust and shared interests. Support the statement with any three appropriate arguments.

Q51.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Analyse any three consequences of the collapse of the Soviet Union.

Q52.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons responsible for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Q53.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

The disintegration of the Soviet Union had profound consequences for world politics. Substantiate the statement with the help of three examples.

Q54.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Describe any three factors that make most of the former Soviet Republics prone to conflicts and threats.

Q55.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991.

Q56.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Highlight any four features of the Soviet system in the erstwhile USSR.

2Contemporary Centres of Power Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (19)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which measure was adopted by China to solve its economic crisis?

  1. Like USSR, China also followed 'Shock Therapy'.
  2. China ended its economic isolation with the establishment of relations with most of the developing countries of the World.
  3. China opened its economy for privatisation step by step for the development of its economy.
  4. China focused more on export as compared to import.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries was not a founder of ASEAN?

  1. Singapore
  2. Indonesia
  3. China
  4. Thailand
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following was the third largest economy of the world in 2017?

  1. Germany
  2. France
  3. South Korea
  4. Japan
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Formation of the European Economic Community (ii) Establishment of ASEAN (iii) Privatisation of Agriculture in China (iv) Formation of SAARC

  1. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  2. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  3. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  4. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Formation of the European Economic Community (ii) Establishment of ASEAN (iii) Privatisation of Agriculture in China (iv)

  1. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  2. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  3. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  4. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The economy of South Korea was the _________ largest in the world in 2017.

  1. 5th
  2. 8th
  3. 11th
  4. 14th
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In the ASEAN logo, the ten stalks of paddy (rice) represent the ten South-east Asian countries bound together in:

  1. Fraternity and Liberty
  2. Friendship and Solidarity
  3. Peace and Friendship
  4. Solidarity and Co-operation
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which country among the following extended massive economic help for reconstruction after the Second World War?

  1. Japan
  2. Britain
  3. USA
  4. China
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries is not a founder-member of ASEAN ?

  1. Singapore
  2. Thailand
  3. Myanmar
  4. Indonesia
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The ASEAN Regional Forum is a mechanism of dialogue that is ___________.

  1. formal
  2. confrontationist
  3. cooperative
  4. provocative
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The ASEAN regional forum is a mechanism for dialogue which is _________.

  1. formal
  2. confrontationist
  3. cooperative
  4. provocative
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The ASEAN way is a mechanism for regional cooperation that is ___________.

  1. formal
  2. confrontationist
  3. cooperative
  4. provocative
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following was signed to establish ASEAN?

  1. Singapore Declaration
  2. Bangkok Declaration
  3. ASEAN Declaration
  4. Beijing Declaration
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order: (i) Establishment of the World Bank (ii) Establishment of the WTO (iii) Establishment of the UNO (iv) Establishment of the IAEA

  1. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  2. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  3. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  4. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match List I correctly with List II: List I: 1. European Currency, 2. Special Economic Zone, 3. A permanent member country of UN Security Council, 4. A Regional Organisation. List II: (i) France, (ii) ASEAN, (iii) Euro, (iv) China. Choose the correct option.

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match List I correctly with List II: 1. European Currency (i) France 2. Special Economic Zone (ii) ASEAN 3. A permanent member country of UN Security Council (iii) Euro 4. A Regional Organisation (iv) China

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence: Arab Spring was a ___________.

  1. Political movement
  2. Cultural movement
  3. Social movement
  4. Environmental movement
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is not an objective of BRICS?

  1. To distribute equal economic benefits among its member-states
  2. Non-interference in the internal policies of member-states
  3. To establish a more equitable and fair world
  4. To promote peace and security
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Establishment of SAARC (ii) Establishment of European Union (iii) Establishment of ASEAN (iv) Privatisation of agriculture in China

  1. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  2. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  3. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  4. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

Very short answer (12)

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

How can the economy of the European Union pose a threat to the US economy ? Explain.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain the 'ASEAN Way' with reference to ASEAN.

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain 'Vision 2020' of the ASEAN.

Q23.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Why is the European Union considered an effective regional organisation? Write any two reasons.

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

State any two objectives of ASEAN.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Mention any two steps taken by China to improve its economy.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Mention any two factors responsible for high human development in South Korea.

Q27.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two important characteristics of ASEAN.

Q28.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Highlight any two problems faced by the European countries after the Second World War.

Q29.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Name any four member countries of the European Union.

Q30.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Highlight any two strengths of the European Union in comparison to the strengths of the United States of America.

Q31.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Outline the objectives of the Marshall Plan.

Short answer (12)

Q32.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Analyse the strength of the European Union as a regional organisation.

Q33.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Analyse any four reasons for the rapid growth of the Chinese economy.

Q34.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain the geo-politics of resources with the help of the example of oil.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain the geo-politics of resources with the help of the example of

Q36.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain the various economic policies adopted by China that led to the rise of its economy.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Assess the economic importance of the European Union.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

The impressive technological growth in recent years has made India an attractive partner for the USA. Support the statement giving any four examples.

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

The remarkable industrial development of India in recent years has made the country an attractive partner for the United States. Support the statement giving any four examples.

Q40.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

In recent years, India's powerful industrial development has made it an attractive partner for America. Support the statement giving any four examples.

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two important features of ASEAN.

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two important features of the ASEAN.

Q43.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Evaluate the importance of any two objectives of ASEAN.

Long answer (12)

Q44.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain any four factors that led Japan to emerge as a new centre of power even after the destruction caused by Atom Bombs.

Q45.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

State any three major differences between the economic policies followed by China before and after 1970.

Q46.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Analyse any four decisions made by the Chinese leadership that led to the rise of the Chinese economy.

Q47.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Analyse the 'ASEAN way' as a unique initiative of promoting peace in South-east Asian Countries.

Q48.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain any three factors that make the European Union an effective regional organisation.

Q49.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

State any four reasons for considering Japan as an alternate centre of power.

Q50.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain any three objectives of forming regional organisations.

Q51.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Analyse any four factors that make the European Union an influential regional organisation.

Q52.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Evaluate the strength of European Union as the most effective regional organisation on the basis of any three facts.

Q53.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Evaluate the strength of Japan as a new centre of power.

Q54.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Evaluate the role of ASEAN in the contemporary world.

Q55.CBSE 2022 · 6 marks

(a) Highlight any three steps taken by China to improve its economy.

Case-based (2)

Case study · CBSE 2023

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 24

Q56.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

(i) Which organisation was established under the Marshall Plan?

  1. Council of Europe
  2. Organisation for European Economic Cooperation
  3. European Community
  4. European Economic Community
Q57.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

(iii) In which year did China adopt an open-door policy?

  1. 1975
  2. 1977
  3. 1978
  4. 1979

3Contemporary South Asia Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (22)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries is not a member of SAARC ?

  1. Nepal
  2. China
  3. Maldives
  4. Sri Lanka
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which year was a multi-party system introduced in the Maldives ?

  1. 2008
  2. 2007
  3. 2006
  4. 2005
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Assertion (A) : In April 2006, there were massive countrywide pro-democracy protests in Nepal. Reason (R) : In 2002, the king abolished the parliament and dismissed the government. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match the following correctly: 1. General Zia-ul-Haq (i) Bangladesh 2. Ziaur Rahman (ii) Nepal 3. Rajapaksa (iii) Pakistan 4. Seven Party Alliance (iv) Sri Lanka

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match the following correctly: A: 1. General Zia-ul-Haq 2. Ziaur Rahman 3. Rajapaksa 4. Seven Party Alliance B: (i) Bangladesh (ii) Nepal (iii) Pakistan (iv) Sri Lanka

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): In April 2006, there were massive countrywide pro-democracy protests in Nepal. Reason (R): In 2002, the king abolished the parliament and dismissed the government.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries is not included in South Asia?

  1. Bangladesh
  2. China
  3. Bhutan
  4. Maldives
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following rulers of Pakistan in the chronological order as per the period of their rule: (i) General Zia-ul-Haq (ii) Benazir Bhutto (iii) General Musharraf (iv) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto. Choose the correct option.

  1. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  2. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  4. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following rulers of Pakistan in the chronological order as per the period of their rule : (i) General Zia-ul-Haq (ii) Benazir Bhutto (iii) General Musharraf (iv) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto Choose the correct option.

  1. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  2. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  4. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The SAARC is a major __________________ initiative by South Asian States to evolve mutual cooperation.

  1. Political
  2. Military
  3. International
  4. Regional
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): The king, with the help of the army, retained full control over the government and restricted the expansion of democracy in Nepal. Reason (R): The king accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution in 2001, in the wake of a strong pro-democracy movement.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false?

  1. Politics in Sri Lanka favoured the Sinhalese.
  2. Interests of Tamils were neglected.
  3. LTTE was supported by the SAARC countries.
  4. The Sri Lanka ethnic problem involved the Sinhalese and the Tamils.
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): India and Nepal enjoy friendly relations and both have signed a treaty. Reason (R): The king of Nepal accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution in 2001, in the wake of a strong pro-democracy movement. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): The king, with the help of the army, retained full control over the government and restricted the expansion of democracy in Nepal. Reason (R): The king accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution in 2001, in the wake of a strong pro-democracy movement. Options: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): South Asia stands for diversity in every sense, even then the various countries in South Asia have the same kind of political system. Reason (R): Despite many problems and limitations, all South Asian countries share the aspiration for democracy.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Identify the country which shares its borders with most of the South Asian countries.

  1. Afghanistan
  2. India
  3. Bangladesh
  4. Nepal
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Assertion (A): South Asia stands for diversity in every sense, even then the various countries in South Asia have the same kind of political system. Reason (R): Despite many problems and limitations, all South Asian countries share the aspiration for democracy.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Identify the country which is not landlocked.

  1. Nepal
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Afghanistan
  4. Bhutan
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Identify the country which is landlocked and has a constitutional monarchy.

  1. Nepal
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Myanmar
  4. Bhutan
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Assertion (A): There was a large-scale migration of refugees into India during the 1971 war with Pakistan. Reason (R): Pakistan had planned the migration to disturb the Indian economy.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who was the first military ruler of Pakistan?

  1. Yahya Khan
  2. Ayub Khan
  3. Ziaur Rahman
  4. General Musharraf
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following developing countries is the first to successfully control the rate of growth of population?

  1. Bhutan
  2. Pakistan
  3. Nepal
  4. Sri Lanka

Very short answer (12)

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Assess the impact of outside powers on the South Asian Countries.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Name any four elected rulers of Pakistan.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Name any four countries of South Asia.

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Highlight any one basic difference between the democracy in Sri Lanka and the democracy in India.

Q27.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

India and Pakistan relations seem to be a story of endemic conflict. Suggest any two measures to curb tensions between the two countries.

Q28.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Name any four military rulers of Pakistan.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain any two factors responsible for the failure of establishing a stable democracy in Pakistan.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Highlight any two features of the Constitution of Bangladesh.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain any two reasons responsible for the failure of Pakistan in building a stable democracy.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain any two reasons responsible for the failure of establishing a stable democracy in Pakistan.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Which political party won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan and under whose leadership?

Q34.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Describe any two problems between India and Pakistan.

Short answer (14)

Q35.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

How does the natural insularity of South Asian region determine its cultural distinctiveness? Explain.

Q36.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Describe any two areas of co-operation and any two reasons for conflicts between India and Pakistan.

Q37.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain the reasons for ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka and its impact on India.

Q38.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Analyse the relations between India and Bangladesh.

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe the circumstances that led to the Bangladesh War in 1971.

Q40.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe the developments leading to the creation of Bangladesh in 1971.

Q41.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe any two factors responsible for the economic growth in Sri Lanka despite the internal conflicts.

Q42.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe any two challenges that delayed the establishment of democracy in Nepal.

Q43.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

State any two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan which can pave the way for establishing a democratic set-up over there.

Q44.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Suggest any two measures to improve Indo-Pakistan relations.

Q45.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Analyse the mutual relations between the smaller countries of South Asia and India.

Q46.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Evaluate the success of SAARC.

Q47.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Explain the process of democratisation in Bangladesh.

Q48.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Explain the process of democratisation in Nepal.

Long answer (8)

Q49.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Describe the sequence of events responsible for the establishment of democracy in Nepal.

Q50.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Why is South Asia known as a conflict-prone zone? Explain the reasons.

Q51.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any two areas of cooperation and any two areas of conflict among the member countries of the SAARC.

Q52.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any three events that show that people of all the South Asian countries want to have democracy in their country.

Q53.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Despite the various problems, the people in all the South Asian countries share the aspiration and support for democracy. Justify the statement with any three suitable examples.

Q54.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Suggest any two measures to improve relations between India and Pakistan.

Q55.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Explain any two areas of cooperation between India and Bangladesh.

Q56.CBSE 2022 · 6 marks

Why could democracy not succeed in Pakistan? Analyse any three reasons.

Case-based (3)

Case study · CBSE 2026

The South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is a major regional initiative by the South Asian states to evolve co-operation through multilateral means. It began in 1985. Unfortunately due to persisting political differences, SAARC has not had much success. SAARC members signed the South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) in 2002 which promised the formation of a free trade zone for the whole of South Asia.

Q57.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following South Asian countries is not a founder member of South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC)?

  1. Nepal
  2. Bhutan
  3. Afghanistan
  4. Bangladesh

Case study · CBSE 2026

The man shown in the suit is President Musharraf and the same man shown in the cap is General Musharraf. On the basis of politics in Pakistan, answer the following questions.

Q58.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

What message is given by the uppermost equation ? Explain.

Case study · CBSE 2025

SAFTA aims at lowering trade tariffs. But some of our neighbours fear their societies and politics through commercial ventures and a commercial presence in their countries. India thinks that there are real economic benefits for all from SAFTA and that a region that trades more freely will be able to cooperate better on political issues. Some in India think that SAFTA is not worth the trouble since India already has bilateral agreements with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.

Q59.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

SAFTA came into effect from:

  1. 1st January, 2004
  2. 1st January, 2005
  3. 1st January, 2006
  4. 1st January, 2007

4International Organisations Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (13)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Statement I : The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organization that oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level. Statement II : All the 189 members of IMF organization have equal say. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both statement I and statement II are true.
  2. Both statement I and statement II are false.
  3. Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which statement is the best description of 'Veto Power'?

  1. It is a power of positive voting.
  2. After the end of the Second World War, Veto Power is given only to permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to establish peace in the world.
  3. All the temporary members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) have the right to use Veto Power only for two years.
  4. All the members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) possess Veto Power.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is related to the traditional notion of security?

  1. Russia – Ukraine War
  2. Continuous rise in the global temperature
  3. 9/11 attack on USA
  4. Spread of COVID-19 epidemic in the world
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the best argument to support India's claim for permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council:

  1. India's growing economic power and stable political system
  2. India's effective leadership
  3. India's membership in the United Nations Organization since its inception
  4. India as the contributing member country in the United Nations Organisation's budget
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one organ of the United Nations stands suspended at present ?

  1. Secretariat
  2. Economic and Social Council
  3. Trusteeship Council
  4. International Court of Justice
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Creation of the World Bank (ii) Foundation of the United Nations (iii) World Trade Organisation was set up (iv) Establishment of the International Atomic Energy Agency

  1. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
  2. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  3. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  4. (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not an organ of the United Nations Organization?

  1. Security Council
  2. General Assembly
  3. Secretariat
  4. UNESCO
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the country which is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council.

  1. China
  2. Russia
  3. Japan
  4. United Kingdom
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not considered as an agency of the UNO?

  1. World Health Organisation (WHO)
  2. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
  3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
  4. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

UN was established with the objective to:

  1. boost trade among the member states.
  2. prevent international conflict and facilitate cooperation among member states.
  3. provide help at the time of war.
  4. help the member states in formation of military alliances.
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not an agency of the United Nations?

  1. UNESCO
  2. WHO
  3. UNICEF
  4. UNSC
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an organ of the United Nations?

  1. UNESCO
  2. World Bank
  3. General Assembly
  4. Amnesty International
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following organisations works to prevent international conflicts?

  1. United Nations Human Rights Commission
  2. United Nations Security Council
  3. ASEAN
  4. Amnesty International

Very short answer (6)

Q14.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Name any four principal organs of the United Nations.

Q15.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

State any two advantages of international organisations like the UNO.

Q16.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Show with the help of any two examples, the strength of the United Nations.

Q17.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Define the term 'Security Council'.

Q18.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two functions of UNICEF which make it a significant part of the United Nations.

Q19.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Name any four agencies of the United Nations.

Short answer (15)

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any two cases of violation of human rights in the world. Suggest any two measures to overcome such issues.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

The United Nations Organisation is generally regarded as the great hope of humanity for peace and progress. Support the statement with two arguments.

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Describe any four steps suggested by the heads of all the member states in 2005, to be taken to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any two important needs to have international organisations like the United Nations.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

State any four steps that the heads of all the member countries had decided to take in September 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain the contribution of any two Non-Governmental Organisations working for the protection of human rights in the world.

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Describe any four contributions made by India to promote international peace and security.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe any four criteria proposed in 1997 for new permanent and non-permanent members of the UN Security Council.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

India has supported the statement that reform in the UN Security Council is necessary. Support the statement.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

India has supported the restructuring of the United Nations on various grounds. Substantiate the statement.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

India has supported the restructuring of the United Nations on various grounds. Substantiate the statement with arguments.

Q31.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

What is veto power? Name any four countries that possess this power.

Q32.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Write the full form of UNICEF and list any two of its functions.

Q33.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

What is Veto power? Name any four countries which have this power.

Q34.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

What is veto power? Name any four countries which possess this power.

Long answer (13)

Q35.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain the composition and one function of any three organs of the United Nations.

Q36.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

United Nations has completed 80 years of its existence since its inception. Which steps may be taken to make the United Nations more relevant in the present world ?

Q37.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain the importance of the United Nations in the present day world with the help of any three arguments.

Q38.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain any four parameters of the proposed criteria for a country to be a new member of the UN Security Council.

Q39.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain the three basis on which India justifies its claim to be a permanent member of the Security Council.

Q40.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Justify the relevance of United Nations Organization in the contemporary world with the help of any four examples.

Q41.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Justify the need of an international organisation like the United Nations with the help of three examples.

Q42.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Do you agree that there is need for reform in the United Nations Organization ? Support your answer with three appropriate arguments.

Q43.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Explain the grounds on the basis of which India seeks to become a permanent member of the UN Security Council.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Write the full form of UNICEF and any two of its functions.

Q45.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Write any two measures to conserve the natural resources.

Q46.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Write the full form of UNICEF and any two functions of it.

Q47.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Examine any four criteria proposed for new members of the UN Security Council.

Case-based (3)

Case study · CBSE 2026

On the reform of structures and processes, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Related to this has been the demand for an increase in the UN Security Council's permanent and non-permanent membership so that the realities of contemporary world politics are better reflected in the structure of the organisation. In particular, there are proposals to increase membership from Asia, Africa and South America. Beyond this, the US and other Western countries want improvements in the UN's budgetary procedures and its administration.

Q48.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

On the reform of structures and processes, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Which organ of the United Nations has five permanent members?

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Secretariat
  4. Economic and Social Council
Q49.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(i) Which organ of the United Nations has five permanent members?

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Secretariat
  4. Economic and Social Council
Q50.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: On the reform of structures and processes, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Related to this has been the demand for an increase in the UN Security Council's permanent and non-permanent membership so that the realities of contemporary world politics are better reflected in the structure of the organisation. In particular, there are proposals to increase membership from Asia, Africa and South America. Beyond this, the US and other Western countries want improvements in the UN's budgetary procedures and its administration. (i) Which organ of the United Nations has five permanent members?

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Secretariat
  4. Economic and Social Council

5Security in the Contemporary World Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (19)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Nuclear non-proliferation Treaty refers to:

  1. Peaceful use of nuclear energy
  2. Spread of nuclear weapons
  3. Development of nuclear fusion
  4. Reduction of nuclear weapons stockpiles
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is related to the traditional notion of security?

  1. Russia – Ukraine War
  2. Continuous rise in the global temperature
  3. 9/11 attack on USA
  4. Spread of COVID-19 epidemic in the world
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is True about the concept of 'Co-operative Security'?

  1. Initiating action by the developed countries against non-traditional threats.
  2. Ensuring 'collective security' by the NATO countries in case of threats.
  3. Strengthening internal security by various measures within a state.
  4. Involving several countries to decide on a collective solution against non-traditional threats.
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct full form of the 'SALT' treaty from the options given below:

  1. Special Arms Limited Treaty
  2. Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty
  3. Secret Arms Limitation Treaty
  4. South Asia Local Treaty
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I: (a) Violation of Human Rights (b) 'Mad-Cow' disease (c) Disarmament Treaty (d) 9/11 terrorist attack List-II: (i) Britain (ii) Chemical weapons convention (iii) World Trade Centre in America (iv) Iraq's invasion of Kuwait

  1. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
  2. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
  3. (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
  4. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) Violation of Human Rights (i) Britain (b) 'Mad-Cow' disease (ii) Chemical weapons convention (c) Disarmament Treaty (iii) World Trade Centre in America (d) 9/11 terrorist attack (iv) Iraq's invasion of Kuwait

  1. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
  2. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
  3. (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
  4. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match the terms with their meaning: (a) Terrorism: (i) Coalition of countries (b) Disarmament: (ii) Political violence (c) Alliance: (iii) Absence of threats (d) Security: (iv) Giving up certain kind of weapons

  1. a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
  2. a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
  3. a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
  4. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): Health epidemics such as HIV-AIDS, Bird Flu and Coronavirus are the new threats to security. Reason (R): Security goes beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats affecting the human life.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one among the following is not an example of Arms Control?

  1. Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty
  2. Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II)
  3. Military Alliance
  4. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): Health epidemics such as HIV-AIDS, Bird Flu and Coronavirus are the new threats to security. Reason (R): Security goes beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats affecting the human life. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which region has the highest proportion of displaced people?

  1. Middle East and North Africa
  2. Africa
  3. Europe
  4. Asia and Pacific
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): An alliance is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack. Reason (R): Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A) : An alliance is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack. Reason (R) : Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance. Options : (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (C) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. (D) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not considered as a new source of threat to security ?

  1. Terrorism
  2. Hijacking of planes
  3. Use of drones
  4. War
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Balance of power requires countries to __________.

  1. give up certain kinds of weapons
  2. regulate acquisition and development of weapons
  3. coordinate their actions to defend against military attack
  4. maintain a favourable balance with other countries
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

People who flee their homes but remain within national borders are called ____________.

  1. fugitives
  2. migrants
  3. internally displaced people
  4. indigenous people
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis is known as ____________.

  1. Confidence-Building Measures
  2. Arms Control
  3. Alliance
  4. Disarmament
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a threat to global security?

  1. Global warming
  2. International terrorism
  3. Epidemics
  4. Rising prices
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following is a threat to non-traditional security?

  1. War
  2. Manufacturing of weapons
  3. Terrorism
  4. Internal disturbances

Very short answer (10)

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any four threats to non-traditional security.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any four threats of traditional security.

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain any two differences between the refugees and the migrants.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two internal threats which any state may face.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the traditional notion of security.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe the basic choices that any government has in responding to a threat of war.

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Suggest any two measures to deal with health epidemics as a new threat to security.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the meaning of Global Security.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How has the strengthening of international norms and international institutions helped India protect its security interests? Explain.

Q29.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Explain the notion of traditional security.

Short answer (12)

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any four choices available to a state when its security is threatened by a possible war.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two new sources of threat to Non-traditional Security.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Why has cooperative security become important nowadays? How can it help to resolve issues of threats? Explain.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain the traditional notion of security and any two of its components.

Q34.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

How are the traditional sources of threats different from the new sources of threats to security ? Explain.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two differences between the traditional notions of external and internal security.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

What is the primary goal of human security ? Explain the difference between the narrow and broad concepts of human security.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Explain the security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Differentiate between the traditional and non-traditional notions of security.

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Analyse terrorism as a new source of threat to security with the help of two examples.

Q40.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Explain the non-traditional notion of security.

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Define terrorism as a new threat to security.

Long answer (6)

Q42.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Analyse the non-traditional notion of security as a notion of human security.

Q43.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain the role of traditional notion of security in the contemporary world.

Q44.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any two traditional measures which may be used by different countries to maintain their national security.

Q45.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Highlight the differences between the external and internal notions of security in the contemporary world.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain any three new sources of threats to non-traditional security.

Q47.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Explain any three security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa after the Second World War.

6Environment and Natural Resources Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (14)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The major objective of 'Kyoto Protocol' was:

  1. to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
  2. to reduce pollution by increasing forest cover.
  3. to provide grant-in-aid to the developing nations to control environmental pollution.
  4. to promote sustainable development.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The concept of 'sustainable development' emphasises on:

  1. utilizing maximum resources for human development.
  2. increasing Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country.
  3. combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.
  4. maximising the efforts for environmental conservation.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in August 2002. Reason (R): India was reluctant to participate in global efforts of environment conservation.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is true about Global Commons ?

  1. Global Commons are determined by the United Nations.
  2. Global Commons are outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state.
  3. Global Commons have been determined by the Kyoto Protocol.
  4. Global Commons are owned by big powers.
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which layer of the atmosphere is ozone found?

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Common resources denote the resources which are:

  1. Owned by everyone and shared by the community.
  2. Owned by everyone and not shared by the community.
  3. Not owned by anyone but rather shared by the community.
  4. Owned by none and shared by none.
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which year did India sign and ratify the 1997 Kyoto Protocol?

  1. 2001
  2. 2002
  3. 2003
  4. 2004
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Sustainable development is based on :

  1. Combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.
  2. Combining economic growth with social responsibility.
  3. Combining economic growth with per capita income.
  4. Combining economic growth with national income.
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Sustainable development is about:

  1. Combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.
  2. Combining economic growth with social responsibility.
  3. Combining economic growth with per capita income.
  4. Combining economic growth with national income.
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): Oil continues to be the most important resource in global strategy. Reason (R): The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): Oil continues to be the most important resource in global strategy. Reason (R): The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match List I with List II and choose the correct option: List I: 1. Kyoto Protocol 2. Electricity Act of 2003, India 3. Agenda 21 4. Sustainable Development; List II: (i) List of developmental practices (ii) Economic growth with ecological responsibility (iii) Aims to cut greenhouse gas emissions (iv) Encourages use of renewable energy

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match List I with List II and choose the correct option: 1. Kyoto Protocol - (i) List of developmental practices 2. Electricity Act of 2003, India - (ii) Economic growth with ecological responsibility 3. Agenda 21 - (iii) Aims to cut greenhouse gas emissions 4. Sustainable Development - (iv) Encourages use of renewable energy

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements about environment are correct ? (i) Environmental concerns are part of the global politics. (ii) A conference on environment was held in Rio-de-Janeiro in 1992. (iii) The UN has assigned the environmental programmes to UN Human Rights Commission. (iv) The Earth Summit was organised by the United Nations. Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (ii), (iv)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii)
  4. (ii), (iii), (iv)

Very short answer (7)

Q15.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

''Water is a crucial resource that is relevant to global politics.'' Justify the statement with the help of one example.

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain any two human activities responsible for degradation of environment.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Name any four Global Commons.

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Define the Indigenous people.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Name any four elements of Global Commons.

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

What is the Kyoto Protocol. Explain.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

In which country was the Kyoto Protocol signed? Name any two countries which were exempted from the Protocol.

Short answer (1)

Q22.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any four environmental concerns that have become important for global politics.

Long answer (17)

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

How does geo-politics of natural resources determine the balance of power in the contemporary world? Examine.

Q24.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Highlight any four steps taken by the Government of India to minimize the greenhouse gas emissions.

Q25.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain the meaning of "Indigenous People" and assess the threats which they face for their survival.

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Examine any four environmental concerns that have influenced the global politics.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain the concept of 'common but differentiated responsibilities' to conserve, protect and restore the health of the environment.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain any four environmental issues that have become the concern of global politics.

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain any three international environmental movements.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Analyse the major initiatives taken by the first Earth Summit and the success it achieved in resolving the environmental issues.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any four environmental concerns that have become important for global politics.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Why are oil and water considered to be crucial resources to global politics? Explain with examples.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Explain any three environmental concerns in global politics which no single government can address.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Explain any three common demands of the indigenous people at the global level.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Explain any three international environmental movements with examples.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

In what ways has the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities helped to bridge the gap between the developed and developing countries on environmental issues? Explain.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Explain any three steps taken by the Indian Government to check environmental degradation.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Highlight any four environmental concerns that have become important in global politics.

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Highlight any three environmental concerns significant to global politics.

Case-based (1)

Case study · CBSE 2024

India is of the view that the major responsibility of curbing emission of greenhouse gases rests with the developed countries, which have accumulated emissions over a long period of time. India pointed out that the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world.

Q40.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in:

  1. August 2000
  2. August 2001
  3. August 2002
  4. August 2003

7Globalisation Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (8)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the statement that best describes the concept of globalisation.

  1. The process of rapid integration or inter-connection among countries of the world through the flow of goods, capital, people and ideas.
  2. Globalisation has increased states capabilities in the political field.
  3. Globalisation has given freedom to consumers to choose from limited alternatives.
  4. Globalisation has reduced the various opportunities of employment to the people.
Q2.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): Resistance to globalisation in India has come from Trade Unions. Reason (R): Multinational Corporations have damaged the interests of small scale industries and agriculture. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Globalisation is related to the flow of which of the following?

  1. Rivers
  2. Ideas
  3. Air
  4. Pollution
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following options is not a cause of globalisation?

  1. Flow of capital
  2. Technological advancement
  3. Poverty of the underdeveloped countries
  4. Flow of ideas
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which country was the first meeting of the World Social Forum (WSF) held in 2001?

  1. Brazil
  2. South Africa
  3. Japan
  4. Italy
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In India, the resistance to globalization has not come from:

  1. Left wing
  2. Right wing
  3. Trade unions
  4. Multinational companies
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which layer of the atmosphere is ozone found ?

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere
Q8.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the main cause of Globalisation?

  1. The formation of United Nations
  2. The development of new technology
  3. The establishment of the World Bank
  4. The rise of economy in India and China

Very short answer (22)

Q9.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

On what grounds can globalisation be considered a multi-dimensional concepts ? Explain with example.

Q10.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Globalization has been a boon for the economy of India despite the resistance shown by certain groups. Support the statement.

Q11.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

How has Information Technology been responsible in accelerating globalization across the world? Explain with two examples.

Q12.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Welfare state has been replaced by market economy in today's world. Analyse the reasons for this change.

Q13.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

"In globalization, the crucial element is 'worldwide interconnectedness'." Support the statement with any two suitable examples.

Q14.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain the meaning of globalisation.

Q15.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Analyse any two reasons for resistance to globalisation in India.

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain any two factors that are helpful for globalisation.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain any two economic consequences of globalisation.

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

How has globalisation impacted the markets near you? Show with the help of any two examples.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

How does globalization impact your life? Support your answer with the help of any two suitable examples.

Q20.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Highlight any two political consequences of globalisation.

Q21.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the resistance to globalisation.

Q22.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Highlight any two advantages of globalisation to India.

Q23.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Highlight any two effects of globalisation on the eating habits of the Indians.

Q24.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Highlight any two effects of globalisation on the culture of India.

Q25.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Highlight any two negative effects of globalisation.

Q26.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Describe any two flows related to globalisation.

Q27.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why have different organisations in India protested against the entry of multinational companies ? Give any two reasons.

Q28.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain globalisation.

Q29.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Define culture.

Q30.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain any two political consequences of globalisation.

Short answer (17)

Q31.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

On what grounds can globalisation be considered a multi-dimensional concept? Explain with example.

Q32.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

"Growing global poverty is becoming a threat to the world." Support the statement with two arguments.

Q33.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Why have the global efforts to protect the environment not been as successful as desired? Analyse the reasons.

Q34.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Show with the help of examples that flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people are instrumental for globalisation.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two major causes of globalisation.

Q36.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two negative consequences of globalisation in India.

Q37.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

State any two cultural consequences of globalisation.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Highlight any two causes of globalisation.

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Write any two political consequences of globalisation.

Q40.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Analyse any two effects of globalisation on your daily life.

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Suggest any two measures to conserve the natural resources.

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Highlight any four effects of globalization on the culture of India.

Q43.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Highlight any two effects of globalisation on the politics of a country.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Highlight any two effects of globalisation on the economy of a country.

Q45.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Globalisation has resulted in the transfer of power of nation-states to global actors. Support the statement with two arguments.

Q46.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Globalisation has shifted the power of nation-states to global economic actors and multinational companies. Support the statement with two arguments.

Q47.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Globalisation has transferred the power of nation-states to global consumers. Support the statement with two arguments.

Long answer (5)

Q48.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Describe any four initiatives taken across the world to create awareness about the protection of the environment.

Q49.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

environmental problems are increasing day by day challenging situation.

Q50.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Explain any four steps taken by the Government of India to protect the environment.

Q51.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Analyse any two effects of globalisation on the festivals of India.

Q52.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Analyse any two effects of globalisation on the markets of your city.

Case-based (1)

Case study · CBSE 2024

Globalisation is a multi-dimensional concept. It has various manifestations, and these must be adequately distinguished. It is wrong to assume that globalisation has only one dimension, just as it would also be mistaken to assume that it is a purely cultural phenomenon. The impact of globalisation is multi-dimensional; it affects some societies more than others and it is important to avoid drawing general conclusions about the impact of globalisation without paying sufficient attention to specific contexts.

Q53.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(i) Which one of the following is not a dimension of globalisation?

  1. Political
  2. Ethical
  3. Cultural
  4. Economic

8Challenges of Nation Building Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (13)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the reason that led to the formation of Andhra state in 1952?

  1. Realising the need to reorganise the internal boundaries of Indian states at the end of colonial rule.
  2. Reorganisation of the Indian National Congress on the basis of linguistic principle after Nagpur session in 1920.
  3. Death of the Congress leader, Potti Sriramulu which caused great unrest and led to resignation of several legislators of Madras in protest.
  4. The Tamil speaking people of old Madras province demanding the reorganisation of state on the basis of language.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the princely states?

  1. Princely states were ruled by the princes.
  2. All the princely states had accepted to be an integral part of India after the end of British rule.
  3. The princes of princely states accepted British supremacy and enjoyed some form of control over their internal affairs.
  4. After the end of British paramountcy, the provinces were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match the States given in List-I with the States from which these were carved out given in List-II correctly. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I: 1. Gujarat, 2. Haryana, 3. Meghalaya, 4. Chhattisgarh; List-II: (i) Assam, (ii) Bombay, (iii) Madhya Pradesh, (iv) Punjab

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953:

  1. to ensure administrative efficiency.
  2. to end complexities regarding demarcation of the provinces' boundaries during colonial rule.
  3. to ensure process of nation building.
  4. for demarcation of states' boundaries on the basis of language.
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match the Leaders in the Column 'A' with the Facts listed in the Column 'B' correctly. Column A: 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. Bodhchandra Singh 3. Potti Sriramulu 4. Jawaharlal Nehru Column B: (i) Tryst with Destiny (ii) First Deputy Prime Minister (iii) Vishalandhra Movement (iv) Maharaja of a Princely State

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Who among the following advanced the 'Two-nation theory' ?

  1. British Government
  2. Muslim League
  3. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
  4. Lord Mountbatten
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Assertion (A) : There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border of India in 1947. Reason (R) : The planned transfer of the population had failed. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q8.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border of India in 1947. Reason (R): The planned transfer of the population had failed.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): The first challenge after getting independence was to keep India united. Reason (R): Sardar Patel played an important role in the unification of India. Choose the correct option:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

On which date was the Constitution of India adopted?

  1. 24th November, 1949
  2. 26th November, 1949
  3. 24th January, 1950
  4. 26th January, 1950
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

On the basis of which language was Andhra Pradesh formed?

  1. Telugu
  2. Malayalam
  3. Tamil
  4. Kannada
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Who among the following had created the Indian National Army (INA) during the Second World War?

  1. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following Princely States initially opposed joining the Indian Union?

  1. Baroda
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Mysore
  4. Gwalior

Very short answer (2)

Q14.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the term Nation Building.

Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which Union Territory was constituted in 2019?

Note: This question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25

Short answer (6)

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any two major concerns of Indian government regarding the reorganisation of states on the basis of language after the end of colonial rule.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Describe the major implications of partition of India.

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

How has the formation of linguistic states helped in strengthening the foundation of democracy and the process of national integration in India? Explain.

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Describe any four consequences of the partition of British India.

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Suggest any two steps to strengthen the national integration and unity of India.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain the role of Mahatma Gandhi in reducing communal tension and violence which erupted in some parts of the country at the time of partition.

Long answer (13)

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

How did Princely states posed a threat to the National Security of India? Explain.

Q23.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any three challenges that India faced at the time of independence.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe the process of reorganisation of states in India after 1952.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain any two reasons responsible for the establishment of the States Reorganization Commission and highlight the basis on which new states were created.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe any three major challenges that independent India faced immediately after independence.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe any four major consequences of the partition of India in 1947.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe the circumstances and events related to Hyderabad's accession to India in 1948.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe the difficulties faced by India to get the merger of all the Princely States into the Union of India.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe any four consequences of the partition of British India in 1947.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe any three challenges faced by India just after independence.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe any three major challenges faced by India at the time of independence in 1947.

Q33.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Highlight any three challenges faced by India after independence.

Q34.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Highlight any three features of the process of integration of States in India after independence.

Case-based (2)

Case study · CBSE 2023

The leaders of the Indian national struggle did not believe in the two-nation theory. And yet, the partition on religious basis had taken place. The Muslim League was formed to protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India. It was in the forefront of the demand for a separate Muslim nation.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

At the time of partition, which one of the following States was divided on the basis of religious majority?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Gujarat
  3. Bengal
  4. Jammu and Kashmir
Q36.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

(26.i) At the time of partition, which one of the following States was divided on the basis of religious majority?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Gujarat
  3. Bengal
  4. Jammu and Kashmir

9Era of One-Party Dominance Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (15)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

To which political party did Rafi Ahmed Kidwai belong?

  1. Muslim League
  2. Indian National Congress
  3. Communist Party of India
  4. Socialist Party
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which state was a coalition government formed in 1957 under the leadership of Communist Party of India ?

  1. West Bengal
  2. Kerala
  3. Assam
  4. Andhra Pradesh
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match the Leaders in the Column 'A' with the Facts listed in the Column 'B' correctly. Column A: 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. Bodhchandra Singh 3. Potti Sriramulu 4. Jawaharlal Nehru. Column B: (i) Tryst with Destiny (ii) First Deputy Prime Minister (iii) Vishalandhra Movement (iv) Maharaja of a Princely State

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which year were the first General Elections held in India?

  1. 1948
  2. 1949
  3. 1950
  4. 1952
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following political leaders belonged to the Communist Party of India?

  1. C. Rajagopalachari
  2. A.K. Gopalan
  3. Acharya Narendra Dev
  4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh?

  1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  2. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
  3. Balraj Madhok
  4. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following political parties won the first general elections in 1952?

  1. Bharatiya Janata Party
  2. Communist Party of India
  3. National Conference
  4. Socialist Party
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is not true about the Bharatiya Jana Sangh?

  1. Reunion of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat.
  2. Hindi should be the official language of India.
  3. It advocated that India should develop nuclear weapons.
  4. It advocated limited cooperation with the Congress.
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which year was the Election Commission of India set up?

  1. 1949
  2. 1950
  3. 1951
  4. 1952
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): The first general elections in India had to be postponed twice and were finally held from October 1951 to February 1952. Reason (R): It was no longer possible to argue that democratic elections could not be held in conditions of poverty or lack of education.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Who among the following was the First Chief Election Commissioner of India?

  1. Sukumar Sen
  2. Karpoori Thakur
  3. K. Kamaraj
  4. Narendra Dev
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): The first general elections in India had to be postponed twice and were finally held from October 1951 to February 1952. Reason (R): It was no longer possible to argue that democratic elections could not be held in conditions of poverty or lack of education. Options: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Who was the Education Minister in the first Union Cabinet of free India?

  1. Karpoori Thakur
  2. K. Kamaraj
  3. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
  4. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which political party was at the second place in winning the Lok Sabha seats in the first general elections of India?

  1. Socialist Party
  2. The Communist Party of India
  3. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  4. Swatantra Party
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

After which general election did the Congress Party lose its dominance for the first time at the Centre?

  1. Third general election
  2. Fourth general election
  3. Fifth general election
  4. Sixth general election

Very short answer (27)

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Why did the Communist Party of India abandon the path of violent revolution in 1951 ? Explain.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two difficulties faced by the Election Commission of India to hold free and fair elections in 1952.

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Why was Congress known as a rainbow-like coalition by the time of independence? Highlight the reason.

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Show the ideology of the Jana Sangh that makes it different from other parties.

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two features of the nature of the Congress party as a social and ideological coalition.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two features of the Communist Party of India (CPI) which were different from other parties at the time of independence.

Q22.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Highlight any two reasons for the dominance of Congress Party in the first three general elections.

Q23.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Why was the Congress Party known as rainbow-like social coalition by the time of independence? Highlight any two reasons.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

What change did the Communist Party of India (CPI) make in its position in 1951 just before the first General Elections and what was the result of this change?

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain any two differences between the Jana Sangh and other parties in terms of ideology.

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain any two challenges faced by the Election Commission at the time of the first general elections.

Q27.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain any two reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Why did the elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world? Explain.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

How did the elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world? Explain.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the nature of the Congress party as an ideological coalition during the freedom movement.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

The new independent India's leaders viewed politics not as a problem but as a means of solving problems. Explain the statement.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the functioning of the Congress Party as a social coalition.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which decade of Indian politics has been referred to as the decade of crisis?

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 24

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which candidate was supported by Indira Gandhi for the post of President in 1969?

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 24

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who was the first Non-Congress Prime Minister of India?

Note: This question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two principles of Integral Humanism advocated by Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Explain any two reasons for the victory of Congress in the Southern States in the general election of 1977.

Q38.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain the concept of Integral Humanism as propounded by Deendayal Upadhyaya.

Q39.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain the meaning of integral humanism as propounded by Deendayal Upadhyaya.

Q40.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Deendayal Upadhyaya.

Q41.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Despite the existence of anti-popular in Indian Politics. Support this statement with any two examples.

Q42.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections.

Short answer (8)

Q43.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain the origins of Socialist Party in Indian Politics.

Q44.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any four differences between the governments formed in the first three General Elections held in India after independence and the coalition governments formed after the year 1989.

Q45.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

The ideology of 'Bharatiya Jana Sangh' party was to make India a progressive and strong nation. Do you agree with the statement? Support your answer with any four suitable arguments.

Q46.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any four points of the political ideology of Communist Party of India.

Q47.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Analyse any two major challenges faced by the Election Commission before conducting the first General Elections in India after independence.

Q48.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Keeping in mind the crucial role of politics in a democracy, which route did our national leaders decide to take in the newly independent India? Explain any two points.

Q49.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Distinguish between the nature of one-party dominance in India and the one-party dominance in some other countries with the help of any two examples.

Q50.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

How was the Congress party transformed into a social coalition of classes and castes in the 20th century? Explain.

Long answer (7)

Q51.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Highlight any two differences between the ideologies of Socialist party and Communist party of India.

Q52.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in Indian politics during the initial twenty years after independence.

Q53.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

The dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections did not adversely affect the democratic nature of Indian politics. Give three arguments in favour of this statement.

Q54.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

(a) The general elections of 1952 in India were a landmark in the history of democracy in the world. Present any three arguments.

Q55.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

How is 'One Party Dominance' in India different from 'One Party System' in other countries? Explain with examples.

Q56.CBSE 2022 · 6 marks

Explain any three factors that influenced the results of 1971 election in India.

Q57.CBSE 2022 · 6 marks

(a) Highlight any three reasons for the opposition parties to come together to form Janata Party in 1977.

10Politics of Planned Development Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (25)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Assertion (A) : The idea of Five Year Plans (FYP) in India was inspired by the USSR. Reason (R) : Due to acute economic crisis, the Indian Government started 'Plan Holiday' in 1966. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). OR Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). OR Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. OR Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the first two Five Year Plan?

  1. The first Five Year Plan was drafted by K.N. Raj and the second Five Year Plan was drafted by P.C. Mahalnobis.
  2. The first Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and the second Five Year Plan focussed on industries.
  3. The first Five Year Plan emphasized on the active role of the public sector and the second Five Year Plan made huge allocations for large scale projects.
  4. The aim of first Five Year Plan was to raise the industrial production and in the second Five Year Plan, the government imposed substantial tariffs on imports in order to protect both public and private sector industries.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The focus of the Second Five Year Plan was:

  1. Agriculture
  2. Atomic Energy
  3. Heavy Industries
  4. Small Scale Industries
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order: (i) P.C. Mahalanobis led a Five-Year Plan. (ii) K.N. Raj was involved in drafting the First Five-Year Plan. (iii) The 'Bombay Plan' was drafted. (iv) The Planning Commission was set up.

  1. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
  2. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  3. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  4. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct full form of 'NITI' of NITI Aayog.

  1. National Improvement Trust of India
  2. National Institution for Technology Improvement
  3. National Institute for Transformed India
  4. National Institution for Transforming India
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

'NITI Aayog' came into existence on:

  1. 1st January, 2015
  2. 26th January, 2015
  3. 15th August, 2015
  4. 1st November, 2015
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statement is not true?

  1. A minimum standard of living ensured for all citizens
  2. Subsidised health services
  3. Private ownership of industries and land
  4. Provision of welfare schemes
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Welfare State?

  1. A minimum standard of living ensured for all citizens
  2. Subsidised health services
  3. Private ownership of industries and land
  4. Provision of welfare schemes
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not true about Socialist pattern of society?

  1. A minimum standard of living ensured for all citizens
  2. Subsidised health services
  3. Private ownership of industries and land
  4. Provision of welfare schemes
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): Modernisation is associated with the ideas of growth, material progress and scientific rationality. Reason (R): The Government of India replaced the Planning Commission with a new institution named NITI Aayog. Choose the correct option:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following was a characteristic of the Planning Commission?

  1. It had a constitutional status.
  2. Planning Commission was set up in 1952.
  3. Its recommendations were binding on the State Governments.
  4. It had an advisory role to make recommendations.
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

One of the basic aims of the planners in the initial years was to _______.

  1. Raise the level of national income
  2. Raise the military power of the country
  3. Raise the political awareness
  4. Raise the standard of education
Q13.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

During the tenure of which Prime Minister were the new economic reforms started?

  1. V.P. Singh
  2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  3. Rajiv Gandhi
  4. I.K. Gujral
Q14.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following statement about Planning Commission is correct?

  1. It had a constitutional status.
  2. Planning Commission was set up in 1952.
  3. Its recommendations were binding on the State Governments.
  4. It had an advisory role to make recommendations.
Q15.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the Planning Commission?

  1. It had a constitutional status.
  2. Planning Commission was set up in 1952.
  3. Its recommendations were binding on the State Governments.
  4. It had an advisory role to make recommendations.
Q16.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the correct full form of NITI Aayog?

  1. National Institute of Technological Innovation
  2. National Institution for Transforming India
  3. New Institution of Technology and Information
  4. National Institute of Training India
Q17.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Who among the following was the Chairperson of the Planning Commission?

  1. President of India
  2. Prime Minister of India
  3. Minister of Planning
  4. Home Minister
Q18.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Who among the following was associated with the preparation of the draft of the First Year Plan?

  1. K.N. Raj
  2. P.C. Mahalanobis
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Charan Singh
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following are the common features for both, the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog?

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (i) and (iv) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog?

  1. The President
  2. The Vice President
  3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. The Prime Minister
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of these statements about the political decisions taken after independence related to development are correct? (i) Almost everyone agreed that the development of India should mean both economic growth and social-economic justice. (ii) It was also agreed that this matter cannot be left to businessmen, industrialists and farmers. (iii) Only the government should play a key role to ensure growth with justice. (iv) It was necessary to consult all political parties and get public approval. Choose the correct option:

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. (i), (ii) and (iv)
  3. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  4. (i), (iii) and (iv)
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence: Five Year Plans were adopted by the Government of India as a policy of ___________.

  1. planned development
  2. mixed economy
  3. socialism
  4. industrialisation
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which Prime Minister initiated new economic reforms in India?

  1. Rajeev Gandhi
  2. Manmohan Singh
  3. V.P. Singh
  4. H.D. Deve Gowda
Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following are the common features for both, the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog? (i) Both are non-constitutional bodies. (ii) Both have significant roles of states. (iii) Both have the Prime Minister as chairperson. (iv) Both have the power to allocate funds.

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (i) and (iv) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements about the Second Five Year Plan is not correct?

  1. It was drafted by some leading industrialists.
  2. It stressed on the development of heavy industries.
  3. Its time period was 1956-61.
  4. It wanted to bring about quick structural transformation.

Very short answer (17)

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two objectives of establishing Planning Commission.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Show with the help of example that the set-up of Planning Commission was not a sudden invention.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

"Planning was the most obvious choice for India after independence." Support the statement.

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two fundamental differences between the First Five Year Plan and the Second Five Year Plan.

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

After independence, which model did India decide to choose for its development and why? Explain.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Did the First Five Year Plan help in the development of India? Support your opinion with the help of two examples.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

How did the government work during the Second Five Year Plan to help at Mysore? Explain.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe any two objectives which were addressed by the First Five Year Plan.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Who was the main architect of the Second Five Year Plan? What did the Second Five Year Plan stress upon?

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Describe any two features of the First Five Year Plan.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

In which year was the Planning Commission of India set up and how?

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Highlight any two features of the First Five Year Plan.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

In which year was the Niti Aayog established and what institution did it replace?

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the Bombay Plan.

Q40.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Which model did India choose for its development after independence and why?

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

State any two main functions of the NITI Aayog.

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Evaluate any two functions of NITI Aayog.

Short answer (1)

Q43.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any four steps taken by the Indian government for the protection of the environment.

11India's External Relations Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (17)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which city was the first Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) held?

  1. Belgrade
  2. Bandung
  3. Tokyo
  4. Delhi
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in a chronological order: (i) Atomic test conducted by China (ii) First nuclear explosion conducted by India (iii) Implementation of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (iv) Initiation of the atomic programme in India under the guidance of Homi Jehangir Bhabha. Choose the correct option:

  1. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  2. (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
  3. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Indo-China War (ii) Establishment of Bangladesh (iii) First summit of the NAM (iv) Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat. Choose the correct option:

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  3. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Q4.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The first summit of NAM was held in:

  1. Cairo
  2. Belgrade
  3. India
  4. Indonesia
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which of the following countries did Dalai Lama obtain political asylum?

  1. Nepal
  2. Bhutan
  3. India
  4. Myanmar
Q6.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following was not a major objective of Jawaharlal Nehru's foreign policy?

  1. To preserve the hard-earned sovereignty of India.
  2. To protect the territorial integrity of India.
  3. To make India a nuclear power.
  4. To promote rapid economic development.
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

There was considerable unease in Indo-US relations during the 1950s because:

  1. India had a growing partnership with the Soviet Union.
  2. The Soviet Union invaded Hungary.
  3. India was not a member of NATO.
  4. India was a founder member of NAM.
Q8.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): India pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament, yet India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT and also refused to sign the CTBT. Reason (R): These treaties were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapon powers.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q9.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Regarding India's Non-Alignment Policy, choose the correct ones: (i) Nehru was the co-founder of Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). (ii) Bandung Conference led to the establishment of NAM. (iii) India advocated the policy of NAM because it wanted to keep away from the military alliances.

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. (i) and (ii)
  3. (i) and (iii)
  4. (ii) and (iii)
Q10.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who among the following initiated the nuclear programme in India?

  1. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  2. C. Srinivasan
  3. Homi J. Bhabha
  4. Vikram Sarabhai
Q11.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Select the incorrect statements about India's relations with China. (i) Indian and Chinese leaders visited each other's countries and were greeted by large and friendly crowds. (ii) A boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China in 1949. (iii) China claimed two areas within the Indian territory. (iv) After a very long correspondence and discussion among top leaders, these differences were resolved.

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (iii) and (iv) only
  3. (i) and (ii) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Assertion (A): India pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament, yet India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT and also refused to sign the CTBT. Reason (R): These treaties were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapon powers.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which one of the following fields are India and Israel cooperating with each other?

  1. Elimination of poverty
  2. Population control
  3. Foreign policy
  4. Counter terrorism
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements, related to the Chinese invasion in 1962, is correct?

  1. A boundary dispute surfaced between India and China.
  2. Dalai Lama obtained political asylum in India after 1962.
  3. China took the boundary issue to the United Nations.
  4. China used atomic weapons during this war.
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who played the role of mediator in the Tashkent Agreement between India and Pakistan?

  1. UNO
  2. USA
  3. USSR
  4. China
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which statement(s) about India's nuclear policy are correct? (i) India's nuclear programme started in the late 1940s. (ii) Nehru was against nuclear weapons and pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament. (iii) India was in support of the NPT at the time of its adoption but its indefinite expansion plan forced India to change its stand.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. Only (i)
  3. Only (iii)
  4. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which Chinese leader paid an official visit to India in 1956?

  1. Hua Guofeng
  2. Zhao Ziyang
  3. Zhou Enlai
  4. Li Peng

Very short answer (9)

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two steps taken by India for Asian and Afro-Asian Unity.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Analyse the impact of Chinese invasion on India in 1962.

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Describe any two efforts made by India to support the cause of decolonisation during the early years of its independence.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Explain the role of Panchsheel Agreement in building the relationship between India and China.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Analyse any two differences between India and China which led to a military conflict in 1962.

Q23.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Elucidate India's policy of Non-alignment.

Q24.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

What was India's role during its first nuclear test? Explain.

Q25.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Evaluate the policy of Non-alignment as a component of India's foreign policy.

Q26.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Give any two arguments to justify India's policy of non-alignment.

Short answer (10)

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any two reasons responsible for the strong relation between Russia and India.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Analyse the relations between India and China since independence.

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Describe any four contributions made by India to promote international peace and security.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Highlight the role of Jawaharlal Nehru in the foreign policy of India.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Analyse the role played by Jawaharlal Nehru for India in world affairs.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Analyse the circumstances that led to the Kargil conflict in 1999.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Highlight any two reasons for India to choose the policy of Non-Alignment after independence.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Describe any two consequences of Chinese invasion of India in 1962.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Highlight any two causes of dispute and tension between India and Nepal.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Explain any four features of India-Israel relations.

Long answer (9)

Q37.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

India's Foreign Policy has been successful in saving its 'National Interests'. Support the statement with three arguments.

Q38.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

"The policy of Non-alignment was followed by India to maintain its independent foreign policy." Justify the statement with three suitable arguments.

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Analyse any three principles of India's foreign policy which you would like to alter in the present international scenario.

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Assess the role of Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India in the formation of India's Foreign Policy.

Q41.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain any three reasons that are responsible for the strained relations between India and China.

Q42.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any three important events just before and after the India-Pakistan war in 1971.

Q43.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

State any four issues of dispute between India and China.

Q44.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any three consequences of the Chinese invasion of India in 1962.

Q45.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Justify the policy of Non-Alignment adopted by India, by giving any three arguments.

Case-based (15)

Case study · CBSE 2026

India made earnest efforts for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in 1949 to support its freedom struggle. India was a staunch supporter of the decolonisation process and firmly opposed racism, especially apartheid in South Africa. The Afro-Asian Conference held in the Indonesian city of Bandung in 1955, commonly known as the Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India's engagement with the newly independent Asian and African nations. The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM.

Q46.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

(ii) In which year did the Non-Aligned Movement become the symbol of Afro-Asian unity?

  1. 1959
  2. 1960
  3. 1961
  4. 1962
Q47.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(ii) In which year did the Non-Alignment Movement become the symbol of Afro-Asian unity?

  1. 1959
  2. 1960
  3. 1961
  4. 1962
Q48.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(i) Which Indian leader played an important role in manifesting the Afro-Asian unity?

  1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Lal Bahadur Shastri

Case study · CBSE 2026

After the Chinese revolution, India was one of the first countries to recognise the communist government. Nehru felt strongly for this neighbour and helped the new government in international fora. A joint enunciation of peaceful coexistence was signed by Indian Prime Minister and the Chinese premier in 1954. But two developments strained this relationship. China annexed Tibet and removed a historical buffer between the two countries. A little earlier, a boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China.

Q49.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

After the Chinese revolution, India was one of the first countries to recognise the communist government. Nehru felt strongly for this neighbour and helped the new government in international fora. A joint enunciation of peaceful coexistence was signed by Indian Prime Minister and the Chinese premier in 1954. But two developments strained this relationship. China annexed Tibet and removed a historical buffer between the two countries. A little earlier, a boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China. In which year was Tibet annexed by China ?

  1. 1949
  2. 1950
  3. 1951
  4. 1952
Q50.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

In which year was Tibet annexed by China?

  1. 1949
  2. 1950
  3. 1951
  4. 1952
Q51.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(i) In which year was Tibet annexed by China? (ii) Choose the name of the Tibetan spiritual leader who had obtained political asylum in India. (iii) Which one of the following was jointly signed by India and China in 1954? (iv) The reason of the Chinese invasion in 1962 was:

Case study · CBSE 2025

India and China. From time to time in history, China had claimed administrative control over Tibet and from time to time, Tibet was independent too. In 1950, China took over the control of Tibet. Large sections of the Tibetan population opposed this takeover. The Tibetan leader accompanied the Chinese Premier during his official visit to India.

Q52.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Where is the plateau of Tibet situated?

  1. Central Asia
  2. East Asia
  3. In the East of China
  4. In the West of India

Case study · CBSE 2025

India advocated non-alignment as the ideal foreign policy approach. This was a difficult balancing act and sometimes the balance did not appear perfect. In 1956 when Britain attacked Egypt over the Suez Canal issue, India led the world protest against this neo-colonial invasion. But in the same year when the USSR invaded Hungary, India did not join its public condemnation. Despite such a situation, by and large India did take an independent stand on various international issues and could get aid and assistance from members of both the blocs.

Q53.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

(i) Who among the following leaders had played a crucial role in the Non-Aligned Movement?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Sardar Patel
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Subhas Chandra Bose
Q54.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

(i) Who among the following leaders had played a crucial role in the formulation of non-alignment policy?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Sardar Patel
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Subhas Chandra Bose
Q55.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

(i) Who among the following leaders had played a crucial role in the non-alignment movement?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Sardar Patel
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Case study · CBSE 2023

The war with China alerted the Indian leadership to the volatile situation in the North-East region. Apart from being isolated and extremely under-developed, this region also presented India with the challenge of national integration and political unity.

Q56.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Which political party got split just after the Indo-China War due to internal differences ?

  1. Swatantra Party
  2. Congress Party
  3. Communist Party of India
  4. Jana Sangh
Q57.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following States is not a North-Eastern State?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Tripura

Case study · CBSE 2023

The first Prime Minister of India played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was foreign minister also and exercised profound influence in the formulation of foreign policy. The three major objectives of his foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity and promote rapid economic development. He wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment. There were parties and groups in the country that believed that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US because that bloc claimed to be pro-democracy.

Q58.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

The first Prime Minister of India played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was foreign minister also. Who was the chief architect of India's foreign policy?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Sardar Patel
Q59.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Who was the main architect of Indian foreign policy?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Sardar Patel

Case study · CBSE 2023

The first Prime Minister of India played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was foreign minister also and exercised profound influence in the foreign policy. The three major objectives of his foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity and promote rapid economic development. He wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment. There were parties and groups in the country that believed that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US because that bloc claimed to be pro-democracy.

Q60.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

(i) Who was the principal architect of India's foreign policy?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Sardar Patel

12Challenges to and Restoration of the Congress System Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (15)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the name of the Prime Minister who abolished 'Privy Purse'.

  1. Morarji Desai
  2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  3. Rajiv Gandhi
  4. Indira Gandhi
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) Congress for democracy (i) Gujarat (b) Garibi Hatao (ii) Jay Prakash Narayan (c) Student movement led by Morarji Desai (iii) Jagjeevan Ram (d) Total Revolution (iv) Indira Gandhi

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I: (a) Congress for democracy (b) Garibi Hatao (c) Student movement led by Morarji Desai (d) Total Revolution. List-II: (i) Gujarat (ii) Jay Prakash Narayan (iii) Jagjeevan Ram (iv) Indira Gandhi

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Identify the State with which the phrase 'Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram' is related to.

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Haryana
  4. Rajasthan
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly: List-I: 1. S. Nijalingappa, 2. K. Kamaraj, 3. Gaya Lal, 4. Karpoori Thakur. List-II: (i) Chief Minister of Madras (Tamil Nadu), (ii) Chief Minister of Mysore (Karnataka), (iii) Chief Minister of Bihar, (iv) Member of Legislative Assembly of Haryana. Choose the correct answer:

  1. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which year did the Congress Party split ?

  1. 1966
  2. 1967
  3. 1968
  4. 1969
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following problems did India face before the 4th general elections ? (i) Failure of monsoon (ii) Food crisis (iii) Heavy rainfall (iv) Depletion of foreign exchange reserves Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii)
  2. (iii), (iv)
  3. (i), (ii), (iv)
  4. (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Identify the false statement from the following related to Lal Bahadur Shastri. (A) He worked as the General Secretary of the Congress Party till 1966. (B) He was in the Union Cabinet for a short period of three years. (C) He resigned from the Union Cabinet taking responsibility for a Railway accident. (D) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan was his famous slogan.

  1. He worked as the General Secretary of the Congress Party till 1966.
  2. He was in the Union Cabinet for a short period of three years.
  3. He resigned from the Union Cabinet taking responsibility for a Railway accident.
  4. Jai Jawan Jai Kisan was his famous slogan.
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Identify the false statement from the following related to Lal Bahadur Shastri.

  1. He worked as the General Secretary of the Congress Party till 1966.
  2. He was in the Union Cabinet for a short period of three years.
  3. He resigned from the Union Cabinet taking responsibility for a Railway accident.
  4. Jai Jawan Jai Kisan was his famous slogan.
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following problems did India face before the 4th general elections? (i) Failure of monsoon (ii) Food crisis (iii) Heavy rainfall (iv) Depletion of foreign exchange reserves. Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii)
  2. (iii), (iv)
  3. (i), (ii), (iv)
  4. (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q11.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Split in Congress Party (ii) Imposition of Emergency by Indira Gandhi (iii) Fifth General Elections (iv) Appointment of Lal Bahadur Shastri as Prime Minister Choose the correct option:

  1. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
  2. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order: (i) Split in Congress Party (ii) Imposition of Emergency by Indira Gandhi (iii) Fifth General Elections (iv) Appointment of Lal Bahadur Shastri as Prime Minister

  1. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
  2. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who became the Prime Minister of India after the death of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964?

  1. Jagjivan Ram
  2. Morarji Desai
  3. Indira Gandhi
  4. Lal Bahadur Shastri
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which two major crises were faced by India during the tenure of Lal Bahadur Shastri?

  1. Political and economic crisis
  2. War and food crisis
  3. War and communalism
  4. Failed monsoon and political crisis
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): There was a large-scale migration of refugees into India during the 1971 war with Pakistan. Reason (R): Pakistan had planned the migration to disturb the Indian economy.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Very short answer (10)

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Describe any two challenges faced by India during the term of Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain the meaning of defection with the help of one example.

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Highlight any two consequences of the General Election of 1967.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Name any four Prime Ministers of India who ruled for less than a year.

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Analyse any two outcomes of the defeat of the official Congress candidate for the Presidential elections in 1969.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Justify the abolition of Privy Purses by Indira Gandhi.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which popular slogan was given by Lal Bahadur Shastri?

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 24

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which state is related to the popular slogan 'Aya Ram, Gaya Ram'?

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 24

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the meaning of the term 'defection' in politics.

Q25.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two reasons for the formal split in the Congress Party in 1969.

Short answer (10)

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

During the decade of 1960, how did the Congress Party resolve the challenge of political succession? Explain.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any two major reasons for the split in the Congress party after the 1967 elections.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain the concept of non-Congressism with the help of any one example.

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Describe any four factors responsible to make Indira Gandhi's government popular in the beginning of 1970s decade.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Analyse any two major reasons for the split of the Congress Party in 1969.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Analyse any two reasons for considering the fourth General Elections important in India's electoral history.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Analyse any two important political happenings in India before the fifth general elections.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Describe any two events that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

How did the coalition governments prove to be a boon for democracy in India? Explain.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Highlight any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.

Long answer (1)

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the split in the Congress Party in 1969.

13The Crisis of Democratic Order Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (15)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which year did the largest public sector undertaking, Railways, go on a strike?

  1. 1974
  2. 1973
  3. 1972
  4. 1971
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order: (i) Declaration of National Emergency on the basis of internal disturbances. (ii) Railway strike by government employees under the leadership of George Fernandes. (iii) Sixth General Election held in India. (iv) Declaration of the doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution in the 'Keshavananda Bharti' case by the Supreme Court.

  1. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  2. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  3. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following was the decision of the Supreme Court given on 24 June, 1975 about the Indira Gandhi case?

  1. Election of Indira Gandhi was invalid.
  2. Indira Gandhi used the services of the government officials in her election campaign which is against the concept of 'basic structure' of the Constitution.
  3. Indira Gandhi was ordered to resign from her post immediately.
  4. Indira Gandhi was granted a partial stay on the High Court order, allowing her to remain a member of the Parliament, but could not take part in the Lok Sabha proceedings.
Q4.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Who led the movement to the Parliament in 1975?

  1. Jagjivan Ram
  2. S.K. Patil
  3. Charu Majumdar
  4. Jayaprakash Narayan
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Students of which two states started an agitation against the rising food prices in 1974?

  1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
  2. Rajasthan and Bihar
  3. Bihar and Gujarat
  4. Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
Q6.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which incident paved the path to form the Janata Party?

  1. Student movement
  2. Presidential Election of 1969
  3. Declaration of Emergency in 1975
  4. Railway Strike, 1974
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one among the following events is not related to the proclamation of emergency in 1975?

  1. The Allahabad High Court verdict
  2. The Naxalite Movement
  3. The Railway Strike in 1974
  4. The Food Crisis
Q8.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following was responsible for high inflation in the entire world in the 1970s?

  1. US attack on Cambodia
  2. The India-Pakistan War
  3. The Vietnam War
  4. The Arab-Israel War
Q9.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who gave a call for a nationwide Railway Strike in 1974 ?

  1. Jayaprakash Narayan
  2. George Fernandes
  3. Ram Manohar Lohia
  4. Morarji Desai
Q10.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which pair of states did the Congress Party manage to win the General Election of 1977 after Emergency?

  1. Uttar Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Gujarat and Karnataka
  3. Orissa and Assam
  4. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Q11.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following political parties was not a part of the 'Janata Morcha' led by Jayaprakash Narayan in 1975?

  1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  2. Communist Party of India (M)
  3. Bharatiya Lok Dal
  4. Socialist Party
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following political parties was not a part of the 'Sangram March' led by Jayaprakash Narayan in 1975?

  1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  2. Communist Party of India (M)
  3. Bharatiya Lok Dal
  4. Socialist Party
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): In May 1977, the Janata Party government appointed a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C. Shah. Reason (R): The Commission was appointed to inquire into the reasons for declaring Emergency, by the Indira Gandhi Government. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): In May 1977, the Janata Party government appointed a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C. Shah. Reason (R): The Commission was appointed to inquire into the reasons for declaring Emergency, by the Indira Gandhi Government. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following political parties was not a part of the people's march in 1975 led by Jayaprakash Narayan?

  1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  2. Communist Party of India (M)
  3. Bharatiya Lok Dal
  4. Socialist Party

Very short answer (10)

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Name any four political parties that had merged to form Janata Party in 1977.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

State any two reasons for the Students' Movement in Gujarat in 1974.

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

State any two reasons for the Students' Movement in Bihar in 1974.

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Which two reasons were given by the Government for declaring the National Emergency in 1975?

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain any two effects of the National Emergency declared in June 1975.

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

State any two effects of imposing national emergency.

Q22.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Why is the period around Emergency of 1975 known as the period of constitutional crisis? Highlight any one reason.

Q23.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two arguments given by the then Government in support of the Emergency declared in 1975.

Q24.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Analyse any two reasons that led to the economic crisis after the 1971 election.

Q25.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Assess the impact of national emergency, declared in 1975, on the people of India.

Short answer (13)

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any four steps taken by the government to control the opposition to Emergency imposed in 1975.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any four consequences of the Emergency imposed in 1975.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any four reasons responsible for the imposition of Emergency in 1975.

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Was the Emergency declared in 1975 necessary ? Support your answer with two arguments.

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

The Emergency declared in 1975, and the period around it was a period of constitutional crisis. Support this statement with two examples.

Q31.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

''The failure of the Janata Party in 1979 was due to its internal conflicts.'' Support the statement with two examples.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Describe the objectives and means of the student movement in Bihar under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan in 1974.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two lessons learnt from the emergency imposed in 1975.

Q34.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two lessons learnt from the Emergency declared in 1975.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two reasons to impose emergency in 1975.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Explain any four reasons for the grand victory of the Janata Party in the 1977 general elections.

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Examine any two main reasons which led to the mid-term elections in India in 1980.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Why is Emergency considered to be one of the most controversial episodes in Indian politics? Analyse any four reasons.

Long answer (3)

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the declaration of Emergency in 1975.

Q40.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

(b) Why did Dr. Ambedkar resign from the Constituent Assembly? Explain why the Lok Sabha abolished it in 1970. Analyse any two reasons.

Q41.CBSE 2022 · 6 marks

Highlight any three reasons for the opposition parties to come together to form Janata Party in 1977.

Case-based (1)

Case study · CBSE 2025

In the Lok Sabha elections, the Congress could win only 154 seats in the Lok Sabha. The Janata Party and its allies won 330 seats in the Lok Sabha. It was a massive electoral wave against the Congress in North India. The Congress lost in every constituency in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh.

Q42.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The above passage refers to which general elections to the Lok Sabha?

  1. 4th
  2. 5th
  3. 6th
  4. 7th

14Regional Aspirations Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (13)

Q1.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the name of the political party that ruled Jammu and Kashmir from 1952 to 1957.

  1. Indian National Congress
  2. National Conference
  3. Swatantra Party
Q2.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

India's seven sisters region is in which geographical location?

  1. North-East region
  2. South-West region
  3. North-West region
  4. South-East region
Q3.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which state of India are the Khasi Hills located?

  1. Meghalaya
  2. Manipur
  3. Mizoram
  4. Tripura
Q4.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which political party came to power in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952?

  1. Indian National Congress
  2. Kashmir National Congress
  3. Communist Party of India
  4. National Conference
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): In 1979, All Assam Students Union (AASU) led an anti-foreigner movement. Reason (R): The movement was against illegal migrations and against faulty voter lists.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q6.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): In 1979, the All Assam Students Union (AASU) led an anti-foreigner movement. Reason (R): The movement was against illegal migrations and against faulty voter lists. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Assertion (A): In 1979, the All Assam Students Union (AASU) led an anti-foreigner movement. Reason (R): The movement was against illegal migrations and against faulty voter lists. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following movements was not started by the people of North-East to express their regional aspirations?

  1. Movement against outsiders
  2. Movement for greater autonomy
  3. Movement to form a union of North-East States
  4. Movement for secession
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which region of India is called the Seven Sisters?

  1. North-East region
  2. South-West region
  3. North-West region
  4. South-East region
Q10.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Arrange the following in the chronological order: (i) Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators to Kashmir. (ii) Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir. (iii) The Punjab Accord was signed by Longowal and Rajiv Gandhi. (iv) Jammu and Kashmir was a Princely State. Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  3. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  4. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Q11.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

From the following options, choose the set of States that belong to North-East India only.

  1. Assam, Manipur, Chhattisgarh
  2. Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
  3. Jharkhand, Nagaland, Uttarakhand
  4. Manipur, Maharashtra, Mizoram
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In July 1985, between whom was the 'Punjab Accord' signed to establish normalcy in Punjab?

  1. Rajiv Gandhi and Surjit Singh Longowal
  2. Rajiv Gandhi and Sant Singh Longowal
  3. Rajiv Gandhi and Tara Singh Longowal
  4. Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

A.Z. Phizo led a movement in which one of the following States?

  1. Sikkim
  2. Manipur
  3. Mizoram
  4. Nagaland

Very short answer (4)

Q14.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

The demands of various regional aspirations during 1980s was a step towards nation building. Support the statement with argument.

Q15.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

How does the geographical location of the North-East region has affected the expression of its regional demands? Explain.

Q16.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Assess the result of Secessionist Movement in Mizoram.

Q17.CBSE 2025 · 2 marks

Assess the democratic approach adopted in India in view of the regional aspirations.

Short answer (13)

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the Assam Movement against outsiders from 1979 to 1985.

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the unrest in Punjab from 1967 to 1980.

Q20.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression. Justify the statement with examples.

Q21.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Analyse any two causes of the Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Analyse the causes of armed struggle in Mizoram against India after 1959.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Regional aspirations and their accommodation are an integral part of Indian democratic politics. Substantiate the statement with any two suitable arguments.

Q24.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Regional aspirations and their accommodation are an integral part of Indian democratic politics. Support the statement with any two suitable arguments.

Q25.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

Regional aspirations and their accommodation are an integral part of Indian democratic politics. Substantiate this statement with suitable arguments.

Q26.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

In August 2019, Article 370 was abrogated from the Indian Constitution. Highlight any four effects of this change.

Q27.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two reasons responsible for the violence in Punjab during 1980s.

Q28.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Highlight any two reasons of the separatist movement in Mizoram.

Q29.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Each regional aspiration is not against federalism. Substantiate the statement.

Q30.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Analyse any two developments of the recent years in Jammu and Kashmir.

Long answer (13)

Q31.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

India has accepted expressions of regional aspirations to strengthen the national integrity. Support the statement with two examples.

Q32.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain the advantages of democratic approach towards national integration amidst the diversity of India.

Q33.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Explain the efforts of the Punjab government and the Indian government to foster peace in the State of Punjab.

Q34.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Describe any three major developments witnessed by Punjab that led to dissatisfaction and violence.

Q35.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Describe any three major reasons of the Kashmir problem.

Q36.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Describe any three major movements in India that used violent means.

Q37.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

'Regional aspirations and demands are part and parcel of democratic politics.' Support the statement with three examples.

Q38.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Regional movements in different parts of India exemplify its diversity and faith in democracy. Support the statement with three examples.

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the movement against outsiders in Assam.

Q40.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe the Secessionist Movement in Mizoram and its consequences.

Q41.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Why is the period since 1980 known for the rise of regional movements?

Q42.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Assess the reasons for the Dravidian Movement and its outcomes.

Q43.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the movement against outsiders in Assam from 1979 to 1985.

Case-based (1)

Case study · CBSE 2023

The war with China alerted the Indian leadership to the volatile situation in the North-East region. Apart from being isolated and extremely under-developed, this region also presented India with the challenge of national integration and political unity.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Which one of the following States is not a North-Eastern State ?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Tripura

15Recent Developments in Indian Politics Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (21)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The alliance that has formed the government at the centre the maximum number of times:

  1. United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
  2. National Front
  3. United Front
  4. National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the name of that political party which has Gandhian Socialism along with cultural nationalism as its ideology.

  1. Socialist Party
  2. Janata Party
  3. National Conference
  4. Bharatiya Janata Party
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The government of which political party/alliance decided to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission?

  1. Indian National Congress
  2. National Front
  3. United Front
  4. Janata Party
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order: (i) Assassination of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. (ii) Formation of the First Non-Congress coalition government at the centre. (iii) Sixteenth Lok Sabha elections. (iv) The Mandal Commission gave its recommendations.

  1. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  2. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
  3. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  4. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Identify the political party which has had a continuous growth in its Lok Sabha seats in the General Elections from 2009 to 2019.

  1. Indian National Congress (INC)
  2. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
  3. Shiv Sena (SS)
  4. Communist Party of India (CPI)
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which was the last state toured by Rajiv Gandhi for his election campaign in May 1991?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Andhra Pradesh
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct name of the alliance made by the Indian National Congress in the elections of 2004.

  1. National Democratic Alliance
  2. United Progressive Alliance
  3. National Front
  4. United Front
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the name of the Prime Minister who led the National Front Government in 1989.

  1. Chandra Shekhar
  2. V.P. Singh
  3. P.V. Narsimha Rao
  4. H.D. Deve Gowda
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

During the tenure of which Prime Minister were the new economic reforms started?

  1. V.P. Singh
  2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  3. Rajiv Gandhi
  4. I.K. Gujral
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Who among the following Prime Ministers radically changed the direction of the Indian economy?

  1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  2. Chandra Shekhar
  3. V.P. Singh
  4. P.V. Narsimha Rao
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following Prime Ministers of India in the chronological order as per their period of rule: (i) H.D. Deve Gowda (ii) Chandra Shekhar (iii) P.V. Narsimha Rao (iv) V.P. Singh. Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  2. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match List-I with the List-II and choose the correct option: List-I: 1. Clear majority in the 17th Lok Sabha 2. Implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission 3. Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda 4. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh List-II: (i) National Front Government (ii) United Front Government (iii) United Progressive Alliance Government (iv) National Democratic Alliance

  1. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match List-I with the List-II and choose the correct option : List-I List-II 1. Clear majority in the 17th Lok Sabha (i) National Front Government 2. Implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission (ii) United Front Government 3. Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda (iii) United Progressive Alliance Government 4. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh (iv) National Democratic Alliance

  1. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following Prime Ministers of India in the chronological order as per their period of rule : (i) H.D. Deve Gowda (ii) Chandra Shekhar (iii) P.V. Narsimha Rao (iv) V.P. Singh Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  2. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is not true about the result of 1989 Lok Sabha elections?

  1. Congress Party emerged as the largest party
  2. National Front formed the Government
  3. V.P. Singh became the Prime Minister
  4. Mandal Commission was appointed
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who among the following was the first Prime Minister to start economic reforms in India?

  1. Indira Gandhi
  2. Rajiv Gandhi
  3. Manmohan Singh
  4. Inder Kumar Gujral
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

NDA IV government presented which Bill in Rajya Sabha on 5th August, 2019 for the abolition of Sections 370 and 35-A?

  1. Jammu and Kashmir Delimitation Bill
  2. Jammu and Kashmir Reform Bill
  3. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Bill
  4. Jammu and Kashmir Abrogation Bill
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

After 1989, which one of the following political development happened?

  1. End of regional politics
  2. Era of coalition governments started
  3. Dominance of Congress Party continued
  4. Communal politics lost ground
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements not correct ? (i) It began in 2008. (ii) The struggle was against terrorism and pollution. (iii) It raised its voice against corruption and unemployment. (iv) It was basically a demand for democracy. Select the correct option:

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (iii) and (iv) only
  3. (i) and (ii) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements about the Arab Spring are not correct? (i) It began in 2008. (ii) The struggle was against terrorism and pollution. (iii) It raised its voice against corruption and unemployment. (iv) It was basically a demand for democracy.

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (iii) and (iv) only
  3. (i) and (ii) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements about the Arab Spring is not correct? (i) It began in 2008. (ii) The struggle was against terrorism and pollution. (iii) It raised its voice against corruption and unemployment. (iv) It was basically a demand for democracy.

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (iii) and (iv) only
  3. (i) and (ii) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only

Very short answer (21)

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain any two immediate consequences of the implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission in August 1990.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Analyse the main reason responsible for the formation of Coalition Governments after 1989.

Q24.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Analyse any two factors responsible for the change in the nature of coalition governments at the Centre after the General Elections of 2014.

Q25.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Analyse any two major problems of Indian politics from 1989 to 1999.

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 2 marks

Explain any two benefits of coalition governments formed after 1989.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Assess any two weaknesses of the coalition governments formed in India from 1989 to 1999.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain any two changes that came in Indian politics after 2014 as compared to the period 1989 to 2014.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the meaning of the term 'coalition' in politics.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Explain the impact of acceptance of the political and social claims of the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) on the political parties of India.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Assess any two advantages of coalition governments at the Centre.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 2 marks

Assess the impact of the implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

Q33.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Evaluate any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

Q34.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Highlight any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

In what way are the coalition governments more democratic? Assess.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Why is it necessary for coalition governments to accommodate and aggregate variety of interests? Explain.

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Name any four regional parties which have ever formed their government in any State.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Name the founder leader of the Bahujan Samaj Party.

Note: This question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the political rise of Other Backward Classes in India.

Q40.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why is the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) considered a coalition with multiple centers?

Q41.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Mention any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

Q42.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why is National Democratic Alliance (NDA) III in.

Short answer (16)

Q43.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain the evolution of the Communist Party of India in Indian Politics.

Q44.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Explain any four advantages of coalition governments with reference to Indian politics.

Q45.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission made in 1980.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two reasons that led to the mid-term elections to the Lok Sabha in 1980.

Q47.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two developments that took place in Indian politics after 1989 which made a long lasting impact on its politics.

Q48.CBSE 2025 · 4 marks

Explain any two changes brought about in Indian politics by the coalition governments formed after 1989.

Q49.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

How did the coalition governments prove to be a boon for democracy in India? Explain.

Q50.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

In which year was the first coalition government formed in India and why?

Q51.CBSE 2023 · 2 marks

Identify and name any four Prime Ministers of India who have led a coalition government.

Q52.CBSE 2023 · 4 marks

Describe any four changes in Indian politics after the 2014 elections.

Q53.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Why is the implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission considered a step to eradicate social and economic backwardness ? Highlight any two reasons.

Q54.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

In recent times, the structure of political parties in the formation of coalition governments is not based on political ideology. Justify the statement with examples.

Q55.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Describe any four important events of the Indian politics from 1989 to 1993.

Q56.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Name any eight Prime Ministers of India who led the coalition governments.

Q57.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Describe any four programmes/schemes launched by the Central Government for the welfare of small farmers since 2014.

Q58.CBSE 2022 · 4 marks

Highlight the increasing role of regional parties in Indian politics.

Long answer (14)

Q59.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Describe any four factors responsible for the rise of coalition governments at the centre after the year 1989.

Q60.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

How did the Mandal Commission recommendations prove to be an effort to solve the problems of Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? Analyse.

Q61.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Which trends in Indian Politics may be predicted on the basis of the seats won in the general elections by various political parties from 2004 till now? Explain any three.

Q62.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

Evaluate the results of the coalition governments formed at the Centre after 1989.

Q63.CBSE 2026 · 6 marks

State any four major political happenings of the decade of the nineties which had a widespread impact.

Q64.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain how the recommendations of the Mandal Commission helped in shaping the political system with three examples or arguments.

Q65.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Explain how the recommendations of the Mandal Commission helped in shaping the Indian democracy with three examples or arguments.

Q66.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

How did the recommendations of the Mandal Commission help in shaping the politics of Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? Explain with three examples or arguments.

Q67.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any four political developments in India that took place between 1988 to 1993.

Q68.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any four new trends of Indian politics that can be noticed during the decade of 1990s.

Q69.CBSE 2025 · 6 marks

Describe any two positive and any two negative consequences of alliance politics in India.

Q70.CBSE 2024 · 6 marks

Describe any four major developments in Indian politics since 1989.

Q71.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Highlight any three points of consensus that emerged among most political parties in India after the Lok Sabha Elections, 2004.

Q72.CBSE 2023 · 6 marks

Highlight any three major developments that took place in Indian politics during NDA III and NDA IV.

Case-based (9)

Case study · CBSE 2026

The defeat of the Congress party in 1989 marked the end of Congress dominance over the Indian party system. It did not, however, mean the emergence of any other single party to fill in its place. Thus, began an era of multi-party system, in which regional parties played a crucial role in forming the alliances.

Q73.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

The defeat of the Congress party in 1989 marked the end of Congress dominance over the Indian party system. It did not, however, mean the emergence of any other single party to fill in its place. Thus, began an era of multi-party system, in which regional parties played a crucial role in forming the alliances. In which year did the Congress party face a setback for the first time and lose power in some states ?

  1. 1962
  2. 1967
  3. 1971
  4. 1977
Q74.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions based on it. In which year did the Congress party face a setback for the first time and lose power in some states?

  1. 1962
  2. 1967
  3. 1971
  4. 1977
Q75.CBSE 2026 · 4 marks

(i) In which year did the Congress party face a setback for the first time and lose power in some states?

  1. 1962
  2. 1967
  3. 1971
  4. 1977

Case study · CBSE 2024

The 1980s also saw the rise of political organisations of the Dalits. In 1978, BAMCEF was founded. It was not an ordinary trade union of government employees. This organisation took a strong position in favour of the SC, ST, OBC and minorities. It was out of this that the subsequent Dalit Shoshit Samaj Sangharsh Samiti and later the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) emerged.

Q76.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct full form of BAMCEF:

  1. Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Federation
  2. Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Foundation
  3. Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation
  4. Backward and Minority Communities Employees Foundation

Case study · CBSE 2024

The 1980s also saw the rise of political organisations of the Dalits. In trade union of government employees. It took a strong position in favour the SC, ST, OBC and minorities. It was out of this that the subsequent Dalit Shoshit Samaj Sangharsh Samiti and later the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) emerged.

Q77.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(i) Choose the correct full form of BAMCEF: (A) Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Federation (B) Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Foundation (C) Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation (D) Backward and Minority Communities Employees Foundation (ii) In which year was the Bahujan Samaj Party formed? (A) 1981 (B) 1984 (C) 1989 (D) 1991 (iii) Who was the founder leader of Bahujan Samaj Party? (A) B.R. Ambedkar (B) Mayawati (C) Mulayam Singh (D) Kanshi Ram (iv) In which State did the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) form its first government? (A) Punjab (B) Haryana (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Rajasthan

Case study · CBSE 2024

The 1980s also saw the rise of political organisations of the Dalits. In 1978 BAMCEF was formed. This organisation was not an ordinary trade union of government employees. It took a strong position in favour of the SC, ST, OBC and minorities. It was out of this that the subsequent Dalit Shoshit Samaj Sangharsh Samiti and later the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) emerged.

Q78.CBSE 2024 · 4 marks

(i) Choose the correct full form of BAMCEF:

  1. Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Federation
  2. Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Foundation
  3. Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation
  4. Backward and Minority Communities Employees Foundation

Case study · CBSE 2023

Identify States/Union Territories on the basis of the information given: (i) The State to which the Chairman of the Mandal Commission, B.P. Mandal, belonged. (ii) The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government. (iii) The Union Territory which was constituted in 2019. (iv) The State from which the political party Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam originated.

Q79.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which Union Territory was constituted in 2019?

Q80.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Name the founder leader of the Bahujan Samaj Party.

Q81.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Who was the first Non-Congress Prime Minister of India?

⬇ Download PDF (34 pages)

Seen the questions? Revise each chapter with free notes, mind maps and graded MCQs.

Practise Class 12 Political Science →