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Class 12 Geography Previous Year Questions, Chapter-wise (2022-2026)

CBSE Class 12 · 759 Questions · 17 Chapters · Free PDF

Every CBSE Class 12 Geography board exam question from 2022-2026 that we have on file, sorted by NCERT chapter and then by type: MCQs and assertion-reason, very short, short and long answers, and case studies. Each question is tagged with its year and marks. A question repeated across paper sets appears once. Questions that depend on a figure from the original paper are left out. Questions only, no answers.

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Practise each chapter with free notes, mind maps and graded MCQs.

Practise Class 12 Geography →
  1. Human Geography: Nature and Scope (43)
  2. The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth (49)
  3. Human Development (54)
  4. Primary Activities (44)
  5. Secondary Activities (53)
  6. Tertiary and Quaternary Activities (52)
  7. Transport and Communication (24)
  8. International Trade (45)
  9. Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition (66)
  10. Human Settlements (50)
  11. Land Resources and Agriculture (37)
  12. Water Resources (17)
  13. Mineral and Energy Resources (38)
  14. Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context (36)
  15. Transport and Communication (57)
  16. International Trade (31)
  17. Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems (63)

1Human Geography: Nature and Scope Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (12)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The loudness of the sound is measured in the unit known as :

  1. Millimeter
  2. Centimeter
  3. Decimal
  4. Decibel
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): There is a strong dichotomy between physical elements and human beings. Reason (R): Nature and human are intricately interwined.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

"Neither there is absolute necessity nor there is absolute freedom." The given statement is related to which one of the following concepts?

  1. Determinism
  2. Neo-determinism
  3. Possibilism
  4. Individualism
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following sub-fields of social geography carefully and choose the correct option: I. Resource Geography II. Leisure Geography III. Gender Geography IV. Marketing Geography

  1. I and III are correct.
  2. I and IV are correct.
  3. II and III are correct.
  4. II and IV are correct.
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The concept, 'understanding the parts in totality would lead to understanding of the whole' is concerned with which one of the following approaches of geography?

  1. Regional analysis
  2. Spatial organisation
  3. Areal differentiation
  4. Exploration and description
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The concept 'identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding how it is different from others', is concerned with which one of the following approaches of geography?

  1. Post-modernism
  2. Behaviouralism
  3. Regional analysis
  4. Areal differentiation
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

To understand the earth surface in geography, which one of the following is inseparable?

You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

  1. Regional and Systematic
  2. Nature and Human
  3. Determinism and Possibilism
  4. Possibilism and Neo-determinism
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The core concern of geography as a discipline is which one of the following? Choose the most appropriate option.

You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

  1. Earth as home of human beings
  2. Earth as home of plant kingdom
  3. Earth as home of animal world
  4. Earth as home of landforms
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following helped human beings to develop high order of technology? Choose the most appropriate option.

You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

  1. Invention of fire
  2. Invention of wheel
  3. Better understanding of natural laws
  4. Better interaction with nature by advanced technology
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The core concern of geography as a discipline is which one of the following ? Choose the most appropriate option.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

  1. Earth as home of human beings
  2. Earth as home of plant kingdom
  3. Earth as home of animal world
  4. Earth as home of landforms
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following helped human beings to develop high order of technology ? Choose the most appropriate option.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

  1. Invention of fire
  2. Invention of wheel
  3. Better understanding of natural laws
  4. Better interaction with nature by advanced technology
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

To understand the earth surface in geography, which one of the following is inseparable ?

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

  1. Regional and Systematic
  2. Nature and Human
  3. Determinism and Possibilism
  4. Possibilism and Neo-determinism

Short answer (31)

Q13.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Examine the relationships between the 'unresting man' and 'unstable earth'.

Q14.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Examine the relationships between 'human societies' and 'earth surface'.

Q15.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Examine the relationships between 'physical environment and human beings'.

Q16.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the concept of 'neo-determinism'.

Q17.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the concept of possibilism with example.

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the concept of 'environmental determinism' with example.

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

''Human beings directly depend on nature for resources.'' Justify the statement with an example.

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

''Technology indicates the level of cultural development of a society.'' Justify the statement with example.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

''Nature and humans are inseparable elements and should be seen holistically.'' Justify the statement with example.

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the inter-relationship between physical and socio-cultural environment.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the concept of 'environmental determinism'.

Q24.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the concept of 'possibilism' in geography.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Examine the concept of naturalisation of humans.

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the regional analysis approach of human geography.

Q27.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the spatial organisation approach of human geography.

Q28.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain with example the concept of environmental determinism.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain the criticisms faced by the World Trade Organization.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

How have human beings been able to overcome natural obstacles through technology? Analyse.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

(a) Analyse the concept of environmental determinism in Human Geography.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

How have people overcome natural obstacles through technology? Analyse.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Neo-determinism attempts to bring a balance between the two concepts of human-environment relationship. Explain this statement with examples.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Nature and man are inseparable elements. Explain this statement with examples.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Human Geography is a comprehensive study of the relationships between human societies and the Earth's surface. Examine this statement with examples.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Evaluate the statement in context of humanization of nature that humans have developed better understanding of the rules of nature.

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

In all geographical studies, nature and human beings are inseparable. Explain the statement.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the main characteristics of Neodeterminism.

Q39.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

In all geographical studies, emphasis is laid on the relationship between nature and human. Explain this statement.

Q40.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain Systematic or Regional approach to the study of Geography.

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the statement: 'Industrialisation developed only after understanding the laws of nature more closely.'

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Evaluate the statement: Industrial development has been made possible only after understanding the laws of nature better.

Q43.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Evaluate the statement in the context of naturalization of humans.

2The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (28)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

How many of the listed countries fall under Asian continent?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

China and Brazil together account for what percentage of the world population?

  1. 17.88
  2. 17.58
  3. 19.88
  4. 19.58
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Who among the following stated that 'Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are very many' ?

  1. Ellen C. Semple
  2. George B. Cressey
  3. Vidal de la Blache
  4. Griffith Taylor
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): River valleys are sparsely populated areas of the world. Reason (R): Water is the most important factor for life.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a push factor of 'migration' ?

  1. Economic backwardness
  2. Better job opportunities
  3. Security of properties
  4. Pleasant climate
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a pull factor of 'migration' ?

  1. Pleasant climate
  2. Natural disasters
  3. Lack of livelihood
  4. Lack of infrastructure
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory is an indicative of primitive stage?

  1. Stage I
  2. First part of stage II
  3. Second part of stage II
  4. Stage III
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The highest difference between the crude birth rate and crude death rate is observed in which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory?

  1. End of stage I
  2. End of the first part of stage II
  3. End of the second part of stage II
  4. End of stage III
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Net increase in population during third stage of demographic transition theory is low due to which one of the following reasons?

  1. Low birth rate and low death rate
  2. Low birth rate and high death rate
  3. High birth rate and low death rate
  4. High birth rate and high death rate
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following stage is related to the first stage of demographic transition theory? Read the statements and choose the correct option. I. Stagnant phase of population growth II. Low or negative net growth of population III. Rapid fall in the mortality rate IV. Poor health and medical services

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the characteristic of the third stage of demographic transition theory and choose the correct option. I. Stagnant phase of population growth II. Low or negative net growth of population III. Rapid fall in the mortality rate IV. Poor health and medical services

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which among the following stage/stages has/have high growth of population ?

Stages of Demographic Transition Theory The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries of the world were in this stage. Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to population is high. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size. This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility. In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

  1. Only the first stage
  2. Only the second stage
  3. Both first and second stages
  4. Both second and last stages
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following stage/stages has/have a slow growth of population ?

Stages of Demographic Transition Theory The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries of the world were in this stage. Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to population is high. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size. This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility. In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

  1. Only the first stage
  2. Only the second stage
  3. Only second and last stages
  4. Only first and last stages
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the most appropriate option from the following regarding components of population change :

Stages of Demographic Transition Theory The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries of the world were in this stage. Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to population is high. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size. This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility. In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

  1. Births, deaths and migration
  2. Births, density and migration
  3. Density, literacy and age structure
  4. Deaths, literacy and sex ratio
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct option related to pull factors: I. Peace and stability II. Unfavourable climate III. Protection of property IV. Economic backwardness

  1. Only I and II are correct.
  2. Only I and III are correct.
  3. Only II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II and III are correct.
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct pull factors related to migration: I. Peace and stability II. Protection of property III. Epidemics IV. Unpleasant climate

  1. Only I and II are correct
  2. Only II and III are correct
  3. Only III and IV are correct
  4. Only I and IV are correct
Q17.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct option related to pull factors: I. Peace and stability II. Protection of property III. Epidemics IV. Unpleasant climate

  1. Only I and II are correct
  2. Only II and III are correct
  3. Only III and IV are correct
  4. Only I and IV are correct
Q18.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following factors is an economic factor affecting the distribution of population in the world ?

  1. Urbanization
  2. Soils
  3. Unrest
  4. Availability of water
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a social factor affecting the distribution of population?

  1. Minerals
  2. Urbanisation
  3. Industrialisation
  4. Unrest
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one among the following is the least populous country ?

  1. Mexico
  2. Nigeria
  3. Brazil
  4. Indonesia
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a thickly populated region ?

  1. The Himalayan region
  2. Osaka-Kobe region of Japan
  3. Siberian region of Russia
  4. Central Chile
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following countries is the most populous country?

  1. India
  2. United States of America
  3. Brazil
  4. Indonesia
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following is an economic factor responsible for uneven distribution of population in the world ?

  1. Urbanisation
  2. Soils
  3. Climate
  4. Political unrest
Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the following statements regarding objectives of family planning and choose the correct option: I. Control the birth rate II. Spacing the birth of children III. To improve the health of women IV. Reducing the death rate of children

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only I, II and III are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the following statements regarding objectives of family planning and choose the correct option: I. Control the birth rate II. Spacing the birth of children III. Better health of women IV. Reducing the death rate of children

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only I, II and III are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the following statements regarding objectives of family planning and choose the correct option: I. Control the birth rate II. Spacing the birth of children III. Improving the health of mothers IV. Reducing the death rate of children

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct
  2. Only I, II and III are correct
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct
Q27.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is related to push factor of migration ?

  1. Natural disasters
  2. Pleasant climate
  3. Security of life and property
  4. Peace and stability
Q28.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the push factor responsible for migration ?

  1. Better job opportunities
  2. Unpleasant climate
  3. Peace and stability
  4. Security to life and property

Short answer (9)

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the main characteristics of Stage I of the Demographic Transition Theory on the bases of birth rate, death rate and growth of population.

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the third stage of demographic transition theory on the basis of birth rate, death rate and population growth.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain, with examples, any three economic factors affecting population distribution in the world.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain with examples, any three physical factors affecting the distribution of world population.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

How does science and technology help in the increase of population in the world? Explain.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

How do landforms affect the distribution of world population? Explain.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain the stages of demographic transition theory in the world.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain migration as a component of population change in the world.

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three physical factors influencing the distribution of population in the world.

Long answer (12)

Q38.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

How do the 'landforms' and 'urbanisation' influence the distribution of world population? Explain with examples.

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

How do climate and mineral mining influence the distribution of world population? Explain with examples.

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the economic factors affecting the distribution of world population.

Q41.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the factors affecting the population change in the world.

Q42.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Describe the use of 'demographic transition theory' and explain its different stages.

Q43.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the factors influencing the distribution of population in the world.

Q44.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Analyse any five factors influencing the distribution of world population.

Q45.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the economic and socio-cultural factors affecting the population distribution in the world.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How is migration an important component of population change? Distinguish between push and pull factors of migration.

Q47.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Define migration. Differentiate between pull and push factors of population migration.

Q48.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Examine the geographical factors that influence distribution of population in the world.

Q49.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Examine with examples the different stages of demographic transition theory.

3Human Development Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (32)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of 'growth' carefully and choose the correct option: I. Growth is quantitative change over time. II. Growth always leads to development. III. Growth is a value neutral concept. IV. Growth has positive or negative value.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements related to the concept of 'development' are correct? Choose the appropriate option.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements related to the concept of 'development' are correct? Choose the appropriate option. I. Development means positive change in life. II. When positive growth is there, it is development. III. When quantity is greater, it is development. IV. Development is always relative to value.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match column-I with column-II correctly and choose the appropriate option: a. Income Approach - i. Proposed by International Labour Organisation b. Welfare Approach - ii. Health, education and access to resources – key factors c. Basic Needs Approach - iii. It is one of the oldest approach d. Capability Approach - iv. Human being – targeted beneficiaries

  1. ii i iv iii
  2. ii i iii iv
  3. iii iv ii i
  4. iii iv i ii
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Congo comes under which one of the following categories of human development?

  1. Very high
  2. High
  3. Medium
  4. Low
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following European country falls under very high category of human development?

  1. Chile
  2. Mexico
  3. Botswana
  4. Belarus
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following is one of the main objectives of 'human development' ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Long life
  2. Healthy life
  3. Wealthy life
  4. Meaningful life
Q8.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following aspects are true regarding the countries with low level of 'human development' ? Choose the most appropriate option. I. These countries are largely facing political turmoil. II. These countries are facing social instability. III. The number of countries in the low level category is the largest. IV. The health status of the people of these countries is poor.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q9.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries is ranked the best in Human Development Index ?

  1. Bhutan
  2. Bulgaria
  3. Mauritius
  4. Singapore
Q10.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following countries in descending order of their HDI and choose the correct option. I. Mauritius II. Singapore III. Sweden IV. Venezuela

  1. II, III, IV, I
  2. II, III, I, IV
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. III, II, IV, I
Q11.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Why do some countries keep on maintaining a high level of 'human development' ? Choose the most appropriate option :

  1. Such countries invest more in social sector.
  2. Such countries are generally rich in political stability.
  3. Such countries invest more in economic sector.
  4. Such countries are generally rich in cultural stability.
Q12.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the appropriate option: Column I (Level of Human Development) - a. Very High, b. High, c. Medium, d. Low; Column II (Country) - i. Bulgaria, ii. Nigeria, iii. Switzerland, iv. Venezuela

  1. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  2. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  3. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  4. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Q13.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Who among the following is associated with 'capability approach' to human development?

  1. Mahbub-ul-Haq
  2. Amartya Sen
  3. Ehrlich
  4. Meadows
Q14.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is associated with 'Basic Needs Approach' to human development?

  1. International Court of Justice
  2. International Labour Organisation
  3. United Nations Development Programme
  4. World Trade Organisation
Q15.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Who among the following considered an increase in freedom of the people as the main objective of human development?

  1. Mahbub-ul-Haq
  2. Ehrlich
  3. Amartya Sen
  4. Meadows
Q16.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

concept was given by which one of the following ?

  1. Griffith Taylor
  2. Brundtland
  3. Thomas Malthus
  4. Walter Burley Griffin
Q17.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is correct about growth and development?

  1. Both growth and development are always positive.
  2. Growth may be positive or negative, but development is always positive.
  3. Development may be positive or negative, but growth is always positive.
  4. Both growth and development may be positive or negative.
Q18.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. Column-I (Pillars of Human Development): a. Equity, b. Sustainability, c. Productivity, d. Empowerment. Column-II (Characteristics): i. Providing better health facilities to everyone, ii. Good governance and people-oriented policies, iii. Each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future generations, iv. Equal access of opportunities for everyone.

  1. a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
  2. a → iv, b → iii, c → i, d → ii
  3. a → iii, b → iv, c → i, d → ii
  4. a → iii, b → iv, c → ii, d → i
Q19.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which one of the following approaches of human development are human beings the targets of all developmental activities? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Income Approach
  2. Welfare Approach
  3. Basic Needs Approach
  4. Capability Approach
Q20.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human Development Index value and choose the correct option. I. Singapore II. Germany III. Mexico IV. Israel

  1. III, IV, II, I
  2. III, IV, I, II
  3. IV, III, I, II
  4. IV, III, II, I
Q21.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair.

  1. Austria - Europe
  2. Cuba - Africa
  3. Chile - Asia
  4. Mexico - South America
Q22.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human Development Index value and choose the correct option. I. Singapore II. Germany III. Mexico IV. Israel

Human Development Index (2021): 1. Israel 0.919 2. Mexico 0.758 3. Switzerland 0.962 4. Singapore 0.939 5. Cuba 0.764 6. Austria 0.916 7. Germany 0.942 8. Chile 0.855

  1. III, IV, II, I
  2. III, IV, I, II
  3. IV, III, I, II
  4. IV, III, II, I
Q23.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Health as an indicator of Human Development Index is assessed under which one of the following ?

  1. Life expectancy at birth
  2. Reach to healthcare services
  3. Total number of hospitals and beds
  4. Percentage of youth population
Q24.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following countries was at the highest rank in Human Development Index in 2020?

  1. Denmark
  2. Norway
  3. Netherlands
  4. Switzerland
Q25.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Building human capacities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is related to which one of the following approaches of human development?

  1. Income Approach
  2. Welfare Approach
  3. Basic Needs Approach
  4. Capability Approach
Q26.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following approaches of Human Development?

  1. Income
  2. Welfare
  3. Capability
  4. Basic Needs
Q27.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an approach of Human Development?

  1. Equity
  2. Productivity
  3. Capability
  4. Empowerment
Q28.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

International Labour Organisation initiated which one of the following approaches of Human Development?

  1. Income
  2. Welfare
  3. Capability
  4. Basic Needs
Q29.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

International Labour Organisation (ILO) proposed which dimension of human development?

  1. Income
  2. Welfare
  3. Basic need
  4. Capability
Q30.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries has the highest rank in Human Development Index ?

  1. Germany
  2. Sweden
  3. Australia
  4. Denmark
Q31.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following countries comes under very high category in HDI?

  1. Mexico
  2. Singapore
  3. China
  4. Colombia
Q32.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

India is in which category of human development?

  1. Very high
  2. High
  3. Medium
  4. Low

Short answer (11)

Q33.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Examine the importance of 'sustainability' as a pillar of 'human development'.

Q34.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Examine the importance of 'productivity' as a pillar of 'human development'.

Q35.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the concept of 'productivity' as a pillar of human development.

Q36.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Examine the importance of 'empowering people' as a pillar of 'human development'.

Q37.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the statement: Human development is a multidimensional concept.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

(a) The ways to measure human development are constantly being refined.

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain the characteristics of countries falling under medium level of human development.

Q40.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Methods of measuring human development keep on changing. Justify this statement with suitable arguments.

Q41.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. Justify the statement with examples.

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three causes for the low level of human development in some countries of the world.

Q43.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the concept of human development as proposed by Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq.

Long answer (8)

Q44.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Differentiate between growth and development by citing examples.

Q45.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the different dimensions of human development.

Q46.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

How is the Human Development Index measured ? Explain key areas of human development.

Q47.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the economist who emphasised on the freedom of choices as the main objective of human development. Explain the four pillars of human development.

Q48.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the organisation that publishes the Human Development Report every year for the countries. Explain any four components of Human Development.

Q49.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Describe the dimension and infrastructure requirements of human development.

Q50.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Describe income and welfare approaches to human development.

Q51.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Describe the concepts of sustainability and productivity in the context of human development.

Case-based (3)

Case study · CBSE 2025

Access to resources, health and education are the key areas in human development. Suitable indicators have been developed to measure each of these aspects. Very often, people do not have the capability and freedom to make even basic choices. This may be due to their inability to acquire knowledge, their material poverty, social discrimination, inefficiency of institutions and other reasons. This prevents them from leading healthy lives, being able to get educated or to have the means to live a decent life. access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited. For example, an uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a doctor because her choice has got limited by her lack of education. Similarly, very often poor people cannot choose to take medical treatment for disease because their choice is limited by their lack of resources.

Q52.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

(18.1) Name any two areas of human development.

Case study · CBSE 2025

Human Development Access to resources, health and education are the key areas in human development. Suitable indicators have been developed to measure each of these aspects. Very often, people do not have the capability and freedom to make even basic choices. This may be due to their inability to acquire knowledge, their material poverty, social discrimination, inefficiency of institutions and other reasons. This prevents them from leading healthy lives, being able to get educated or to have the means to live a decent life. access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited. For example, an uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a doctor because her choice has got limited by her lack of education. Similarly, very often poor people cannot choose to take medical treatment for disease because their choice is limited by their lack of resources.

Q53.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

(19.1) Name any two areas of human development.

Q54.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Name any two areas of human development.

4Primary Activities Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (28)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the low latitudes zone of subsistence gathering practiced in the world?

  1. Northern Canada
  2. Northern Eurasia
  3. Southeast Asia
  4. Southeast Chile
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the subsistence gathering zone in the high latitudes ?

  1. Southern Chile
  2. South-east Asia
  3. Amazon Basin
  4. Tropical Africa
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which one of the following countries, the 'slash and burn cultivation' is known as 'Milpa'?

  1. Mexico
  2. Malaysia
  3. Indonesia
  4. India
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following types of farming is most labour intensive?

  1. Horticulture
  2. Subsistence agriculture
  3. Co-operative farming
  4. Collective farming
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the least labour intensive cultivation methods?

  1. Plantation agriculture
  2. Subsistence agriculture
  3. Extensive commercial cultivation
  4. Market Gardening and Horticulture
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following statements about 'agribusiness' carefully and choose the correct option: I. It is a commercial farming on an industrial scale. II. Its raw materials are received from forests. III. It is highly structured, mechanised and large in size. IV. Its example is tea plantation.

  1. Only I, III and IV are correct
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct
  3. Only I, II and III are correct
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

In which of the following regions, 'dairy farming' is well-developed ?

  1. West Indies
  2. Madagascar
  3. Malaysia
  4. New Zealand
Q8.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Developing countries are more involved in mining and processing of minerals. Reason (R): The economies of these countries are primarily based on service sector.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q9.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following statements about 'open-cast mining' and choose the correct option: I. It is the cheapest way of mining. II. It occurs close to the surface. III. It requires specially designed drilling machines. IV. Safety equipment is relatively low.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following statements related to plantation agriculture carefully and choose the correct option. I. It requires good transportation system. II. It needs large capital investment. III. It is a single crop specialisation. IV. It is best developed in Eurasian Steppes.

  1. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and III are correct.
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option. I. Generally gathering is practised in the regions with harsh climatic conditions. II. In modern times, some gathering is market-oriented. III. Denmark is a classical example of gathering activities. IV. Gathering is practised mostly by primitive societies.

  1. I, II and IV are correct.
  2. I, II and III are correct.
  3. II, III and IV are correct.
  4. I, III and IV are correct.
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following statements related to the correct option. I. It is market-oriented and has become commercial. II. Hunting is an unsustainable activity. III. People collect valuable plants and after simple processing sell them. IV. People selected and domesticated animals found in the regions. Which option is correct?

  1. II, III and IV are correct
  2. I, II and III are correct
  3. I, III and IV are correct
  4. I, II and IV are correct
Q13.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the type of agriculture predominantly practised in the Australian Downs.

  1. Mixed Farming
  2. Plantation Agriculture
  3. Co-operative Farming
  4. Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation
Q14.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following statements related to intensive subsistence. I. Land holdings are very small under it. II. Use of machinery is limited under it. III. It is practised largely in Central Asia. IV. The yield per unit area is high, but per labour productivity is low.

  1. I, II and IV are correct
  2. II, III and IV are correct
  3. I, II and III are correct
  4. I, III and IV are correct
Q15.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Area): 1. Tropical Africa 2. Asiatic Deserts 3. Mountainous areas of Tibet 4. Sub-Arctic areas Column II (Animal Domestication): (i) Camel (ii) Cattle (iii) Reindeer (iv) Llamas

  1. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following activities comes under primary sector ?

  1. Teaching
  2. Stitching clothes
  3. Mining
  4. Making clay toys
Q17.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In which one of the following countries has co-operative farming been the most successful?

  1. Denmark
  2. Germany
  3. France
  4. England
Q18.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following types of agriculture is concerned with the production of a single crop?

  1. Intensive subsistence agriculture
  2. Plantation agriculture
  3. Mixed farming
  4. Mediterranean agriculture
Q19.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Truck farming is related to which one of the following?

  1. Fruits production
  2. Grain production
  3. Tea production
  4. Vegetables production
Q20.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a commercial grain farming region?

  1. North Western Europe
  2. Canada region
  3. New Zealand region
  4. South Eastern Australia
Q21.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Fodder crops are an important component of which among the following types of agriculture ?

  1. Mixed
  2. Mediterranean
  3. Co-operative
  4. Collective
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which is the main commercial grain farming region among the following?

  1. North Western Europe
  2. Canada region
  3. New Zealand region
  4. South Eastern Australia
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following is an important speciality of the Mediterranean agriculture?

  1. Production of food grain crops
  2. Production of grapes and citrus fruits
  3. Production of oil seeds crops
  4. Production of fibre crops
Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which of the following countries has the movement of co-operative farming been most successful?

  1. United Kingdom
  2. Germany
  3. Denmark
  4. Brazil
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following features is correct regarding the gathering and hunting activities ?

  1. Practised in moderate climatic regions
  2. Involves primitive societies
  3. Depends on heavy capital investment
  4. Depends upon modern technology
Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following features is correct regarding nomadic herding ?

  1. Nomadism is a modern commercial activity.
  2. It is practised on permanent pastures.
  3. A wide variety of cattle are reared in different regions.
  4. Nomadism is associated with modern technology.
Q27.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following is an important region for commercial livestock rearing?

  1. Canada
  2. USA
  3. India
  4. Malaysia
Q28.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an important region for subsistence gathering ?

  1. South Africa
  2. Amazon Basin
  3. Indonesia
  4. Mexico

Short answer (1)

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the characteristics of extensive subsistence agriculture.

Long answer (12)

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance." Examine the statement with reference to hunting and gathering.

Q31.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

''Mixed agriculture is practised in the developed parts of the world.'' Support the statement with examples.

Q32.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

''Per person yield is high in extensive commercial grain farming.'' Support the statement with examples.

Q33.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

''The developed economies are retreating from mining and processing.'' Support the statement with examples.

Q34.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Analyse the main features of mixed farming in the world.

Q35.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Analyse the main features of extensive commercial grain cultivation in the world.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Describe any five features of plantation agriculture in the world.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain any five features of mixed farming in the world with examples.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyze the main features of Plantation Agriculture in the world.

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyse the main features of Plantation Agriculture in the world.

Q40.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

(b) Describe any five features of extensive commercial grain farming in the world.

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain any five characteristics of plantation agriculture in the world.

Case-based (3)

Q42.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Mention the major area of commercial livestock rearing in Argentina.

Case study · CBSE 2023

Methods of Mining Depending on the mode of occurrence and the nature of the ore, mining is of two types: surface and underground mining. The surface mining also known as open-cast mining is the easiest and the cheapest way of mining minerals that occur close to the surface. Overhead costs such as safety precautions and equipment are relatively low in this method. The output is both large and rapid. When the ore lies deep below the surface, underground mining method (shaft method) has to be used. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals. Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through these passages. It requires specially designed lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system for safety and efficient movement of people and material. This method is risky. Poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving in lead to fatal accidents. Have you ever read about mine fires and flooding of coal mines in India? The developed economies are retreating from mining, processing and refining stages of production due to high labour costs, while the developing countries with large labour force and striving for higher standard of living are becoming more important. Several countries of Africa and few of South America and Asia have over fifty percent of the earnings from minerals alone.

Q43.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(19.1) Explain the main difference between surface and underground mining.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the main difference between surface and underground mining.

5Secondary Activities Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (32)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of non-metallic mineral based industry?

  1. Aluminium industry
  2. Iron and Steel industry
  3. Copper industry
  4. Cement industry
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Foot-loose industries are located _____

  1. where energy supply is continuous
  2. where good accessibility by rail/road is available
  3. where cheap and skilled labour is available
  4. where market facilities are available
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following are the true characteristics of cottage manufacturing ? Choose the most appropriate option. I. The artisans use local raw materials. II. The products of these units are supplied at distant markets. III. Most of the times, the family members work in these units. IV. The finished products like mats, bricks, pottery, etc. are some important examples.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a product of forest-based industry ?

  1. Leather
  2. Tea
  3. Cotton
  4. Paper
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following factors are involved in large-scale manufacturing ? Choose the most appropriate option. I. Variety of raw material II. Advanced technology III. Semi-skilled worker IV. Large investment

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following features of private sector industries carefully and choose the most appropriate option. I. These are managed by the government. II. These types of industries provide large employment. III. These are owned by individual investors. IV. Their main motive is to earn more profit.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics related to chemical-based industries carefully and choose the most appropriate option. I. These industries use natural chemical minerals. II. Some of the items used in these industries are petroleum, salts, sulphur, etc. III. Many chemical-based industries use non-metallic minerals. IV. All chemical-based industries are under government control.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q8.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following features of public sector industries carefully and choose the most appropriate option. I. Most of the heavy industries come under public sector in India. II. Establishing these types of industries is easy. III. Most of these types of industries are owned and managed by the government. IV. They provide large number of employment.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q9.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics related to small scale manufacturing industries carefully and choose the most appropriate option. I. Workshop/manufacturing units are located outside the home. II. These types of industries uses local raw materials. III. Highly skilled workers are required in this type of industries. IV. These types of industries raise local purchasing power.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q10.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of 'cottage industries' carefully and choose the most appropriate option: I. These are the smallest manufacturing units. II. Artisans use local raw materials in these units. III. All craftsmen use electrically powered simple tools for production. IV. The products of these industries are mostly for own consumption or for local markets.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q11.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of forest-based industry ?

  1. Textiles
  2. Sugar
  3. Lac
  4. Edible oil
Q12.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of 'agro-based industry' ?

  1. Wool
  2. Paper
  3. Timber
  4. Edible oil
Q13.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of 'chemical-based industries' carefully and choose the most appropriate option. I. Such industries use natural chemical minerals. II. Such industries are also based on raw materials obtained from wood and coal. III. All such industries are put into large-scale industries. IV. Synthetic fiber, plastic manufacturing, etc. are some examples of these types of industry.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q14.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following factors affects the most for location of 'foot loose industries' ?

  1. Accessibility by road network
  2. Near to raw material
  3. Power availability
  4. Cheap labour force
Q15.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of 'technopolies' ?

  1. Brahmaputra Valley
  2. Amazon Valley
  3. Silicon Valley
  4. Nile Valley
Q16.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of 'manufacturing industries' carefully and choose the most appropriate option. I. These include the production of goods. II. These include the production of services also. III. These are done by using power source and machines. IV. Handicrafts and moulding iron and steel etc. are some examples.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q17.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. Reason (R): Location of foot loose industries is determined by transport network accessibility.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Q18.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the sector concerned with the work of converting raw materials into finished products.

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q19.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the sector concerned with the work of converting raw material into finished products.

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q20.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw materials. Reason (R): It is followed to reduce the cost of products.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Q21.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw material. Reason (R): It is followed to reduce the cost of products. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Q22.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Synthetic fibre and plastic manufacturing is an example of which one of the following ?

  1. Mineral-based industry
  2. Chemical-based industry
  3. Forest-based industry
  4. Animal-based industry
Q23.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. Reason (R): The important factor in the location of foot loose industries is accessibility by transport network.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q24.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Industry): 1. Agro-based 2. Forest-based 3. Chemical-based 4. Product-based Column II (Example): (i) Soaps (ii) Salts (iii) Lac (iv) Vegetable oil

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
Q25.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Industry) - Column II (Example) 1. Agro-based - (i) Soaps 2. Forest-based - (ii) Salts 3. Chemical-based - (iii) Lac 4. Product-based - (iv) Vegetable oil

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following features is correct about cottage industries?

  1. It is a large manufacturing unit.
  2. Raw material is imported from outside markets.
  3. Goods produced by them have low commercial significance.
  4. Finished products are sold in the open market.
Q27.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following features is correct about large scale industries?

  1. Raw material is procured locally.
  2. Large number of unskilled workers work in them.
  3. They do not require advanced technology.
  4. They require large amount of capital investment.
Q28.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following industries produce raw material for other industries?

  1. Small scale industries
  2. Basic or key industries
  3. Household industries
  4. Joint sector industries
Q29.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not the feature of small scale industries?

  1. They use simple power driven machines.
  2. They rely on semi-skilled labour.
  3. They obtain raw materials locally.
  4. Their products are sold in international markets.
Q30.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following is an agro based industry?

  1. Woollen textile
  2. Leather
  3. Cement
  4. Jute
Q31.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the following features of cottage manufacturing and choose the correct option: I. Place of manufacturing outside the home II. It is the smallest unit of manufacturing III. Use local raw materials IV. Simple tools are used

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q32.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a major polluting industry?

  1. Food processing industry
  2. Cottage industry
  3. Chemical industry
  4. Foot loose industry

Very short answer (3)

Q33.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why is the labour supply rate significant for industries? Explain.

Q34.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain any two features of manufacturing process.

Q35.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

What is the significance of raw materials for industries? Explain.

Short answer (4)

Q36.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the main reasons for uneven distribution of modern manufacturing industries in the world.

Q37.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Modern manufacturing is concentrated in only a few number of places in the world. Explain this statement with examples.

Q38.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

(a) Modern manufacturing in the world is concentrated in a few number of places. Justify this statement with examples.

Q39.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Modern manufacturing is concentrated in a few number of places in the world. Justify this statement with examples.

Long answer (12)

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"Industries should be located at points where the production costs are minimum." Examine the statement with suitable arguments.

Q41.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Classify industries on the basis of size and explain the significance of manufacturing industries.

Q42.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"There are many factors affecting the location of industries." Examine the main factors in favour of the statement.

Q43.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Manufacturing industries are classified on several bases. Examine the main bases of classification in favour of the statement.

Q44.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain how agglomerisation of industries leads to their concentration in specific regions.

Q45.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the significance of mineral-based industries in development.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the classification of industries on the basis of raw materials with examples.

Q47.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the difference between cottage and large scale industries in the world, with examples.

Q48.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain any five factors affecting the location of industries in the world.

Q49.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain five types of industries classified on the basis of raw materials.

Q50.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Analyse five main factors affecting location of industries in the world.

Q51.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Examine the major characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing in the world.

Case-based (2)

Case study · CBSE 2022

The large integrated steel industry is traditionally located close to the sources of raw materials iron-ore, coal, manganese and limestone or at places where these could be easily brought, e.g., near ports. But in mini steel mills, access to markets is more important than inputs. These are less expensive to build and operate and can be located near markets because of the abundance of scrap metal, which is the main input. Traditionally, most of the steel was produced at large integrated plants, but mini mills are limited to just one-step process steel making and are gaining ground.

Q52.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Mention the main factor affecting location of large integrated steel industry.

Case study · CBSE 2022

Steel Industry: The large integrated steel industry is traditionally located close to the sources of raw materials — iron-ore, coal, manganese and limestone — or at places where these could be easily brought, e.g., near ports. But in mini steel mills, access to markets is more important than inputs. These are less expensive to build and operate and can be located near markets because of the abundance of scrap metal, which is the main input. Traditionally, most of the steel was produced at large integrated plants, but mini mills are limited to just one-step process — steel making — and are gaining ground.

Q53.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Mention the main factor affecting location of large integrated steel industry.

6Tertiary and Quaternary Activities Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (29)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following statements carefully regarding 'tertiary activities' and choose the correct option:

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following.

  1. Red collar worker – Practicing lawyers
  2. Gold collar worker – Senior business executive
  3. Pink collar worker – Environmental scientist
  4. White collar worker – Mining worker
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statements is true regarding 'medical tourism' in India?

  1. Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.
  2. Doctors travel to developed country to do surgical operation.
  3. Doctors travel to treat the patients.
  4. Tourists on trip get treated, if they fall ill.
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following statements carefully regarding 'tertiary activities' and choose the correct option: I. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange of services. II. Tertiary activities involve the commercial output of services. III. Tertiary activities are directly involved in the processing of raw material. IV. The examples of tertiary activities are – plumber, doctor, publisher.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): The history and art of any area have potential attractiveness for the tourists. Reason (R): Tourists visit ancient archaeological sites and enjoy exploring castles and palaces.

  1. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  2. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following sector is involved in the highest level of decision making ?

  1. Primary sector
  2. Secondary sector
  3. Tertiary sector
  4. Quinary sector
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements are true regarding rural marketing centres ? Choose the most appropriate option: I. These market centres cater to nearby settlements. II. These serve as the trading centres of most rudimentary type. III. At these centres, personal and professional services are well-developed. IV. At these centres, most of the services are retail in nature.

  1. Only I, II and III
  2. Only I, II and IV
  3. Only I, III and IV
  4. Only II, III and IV
Q8.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following characteristics are true regarding urban marketing centres? Choose the correct option. I. Urban marketing centres provide ordinary as well as specialised goods and services. II. These centres are specialised for high end users. III. They provide well-developed personal and professional services that are affordable to general masses. IV. Most of these centres are specialised in education, medicine and other services.

  1. Only I, II and III
  2. Only I, II and IV
  3. Only I, III and IV
  4. Only II, III and IV
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the correct option related to transport services from the following.

  1. It comes under the quaternary sector of economic activities.
  2. It is concerned with physical mobility.
  3. It is concerned with digital sending and receiving of information.
  4. Roads, railways, television and internet are some of its examples.
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The statements given below describe communication services. Identify the most appropriate characteristics of telecommunication from the following.

  1. All forms of transport are referred to as means of telecommunication.
  2. Where the transport network is efficient, telecommunication is very successful.
  3. Newspapers are the most efficient means of telecommunication.
  4. It is linked to the development of modern technology and high speed dissemination of information.
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the most appropriate characteristic of chain stores from the following.

  1. They are equally effective in rural and urban areas.
  2. They deal in retail and wholesale trading.
  3. They employ highly skilled specialists in many executive tasks.
  4. They provide services to individual consumers who can afford to pay.
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements best describes retail trade?

  1. It takes place in urban centres only.
  2. Retail traders are the collection and distribution centres.
  3. It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  4. Retail traders primarily direct the goods to be manufactured to their specifications.
Q13.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct statement related to periodic markets in rural areas.

  1. These are quasi-urban centres.
  2. These markets are held on specific days at different locations.
  3. Personal and professional services are well-developed.
  4. All the sellers collect the items from wholesale markets.
Q14.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which statement correctly describes wholesale trading?

  1. Wholesale trading is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  2. Wholesale trading is done through street peddling, door-to-door and automatic vending machines.
  3. Wholesale trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.
  4. In wholesale trading, most of the sellers operate on the capital of retailers.
Q15.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Consumption of information-based services come under which one of the following sectors?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q16.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of tertiary activities carefully and choose the correct option. I. It is involved in processing of physical raw materials. II. It is an output of services. III. Many of the services are highly specialised. IV. Electrician, doctor, lawyer, driver are some of its examples.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q17.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of workforce carefully, where work is performed through outsourcing and choose the correct option. I. Availability of cheap and skilled workers. II. Good English language skill of involved workforce. III. Highly-skilled well-paid professionals. IV. Facility of customer support and call centre services.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q18.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Automatic vending machines and the internet are examples of which of the following types of trade?

  1. Rural Marketing Centres
  2. Wholesale Trading
  3. Urban Marketing Centres
  4. Retail Trading
Q19.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of tertiary activities carefully and choose the correct option. I. Tertiary activities include all types of services. II. Trade, transport and communication are parts of tertiary activities. III. Raw material is transformed into finished goods under tertiary activities. IV. Teachers, lawyers and traders are some of the examples of tertiary activities.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q20.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is able to purchase merchandise more economically, by contacting the manufacturers to produce the goods according to their specification ?

  1. Trading Centres
  2. Consumer Cooperatives
  3. Departmental Stores
  4. Chain Stores
Q21.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Production of information is related to which one of the following sectors?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q22.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following characteristics of retail trading carefully and choose the correct option: I. This is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers. II. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or stores. III. It is formed by many middlemen, traders and suppliers. IV. Hawkers, street peddling, automatic vending machines, etc. are its examples.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q23.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Manpower is an important component of the service sector. Reason (R): Most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour and professionally trained experts.

  1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q24.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below as I and II. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Statement I: Most of the quaternary activities can be outsourced. Statement II: These services are not necessarily based on resources and market.

  1. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  2. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
  3. Statements I and II both are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  4. Statements I and II both are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a tertiary activity?

  1. Gathering
  2. Hunting
  3. Nomadic herding
  4. Trading
Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a quaternary activity?

  1. Catching fish
  2. Iron smelting
  3. Software developing
  4. Basket making
Q27.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Transport activities come under which one of the following sectors?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
Q28.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a quarternary activity?

  1. Catching fish
  2. Iron smelting
  3. Software developing
  4. Basket making
Q29.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Retail trading comes under which of the following activities ?

  1. Primary
  2. Tertiary
  3. Quarternary
  4. Secondary

Very short answer (2)

Q30.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Differentiate between Departmental stores and Chain stores stating two differences.

Q31.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

What is the significance of transport and communication for industries? Explain.

Short answer (7)

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain why quaternary activities are based on specialised skills, experience and knowledge of workers.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Skilled manpower is an important component of the service sector. Explain the statement.

Q34.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain why all forms of transport are also referred to as lines of communication.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three attractions of tourism in the world.

Q36.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Why are higher percentage of workers employed in services in more developed countries? Explain with examples.

Q37.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

How does distribution differ from transport? Explain with examples.

Q38.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Examine the activities of periodic markets of rural areas.

Long answer (4)

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Quaternary activities are based on specialised knowledge and skill. Justify the statement by giving suitable arguments.

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

India holds a significant place in medical tourism in the world. Justify the statement by giving suitable arguments.

Q41.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Communication services involve the transmission of words and messages, facts and ideas. Justify the statement by giving suitable arguments.

Q42.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Define the term 'outsourcing'. Explain the benefits of outsourcing for developing countries.

Case-based (10)

Case study · CBSE 2026

The Quaternary Sector. The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth. Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the 'Knowledge Sector' and there has been a very high growth in demand for consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and statisticians. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors' offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services. Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.

Q43.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

18.1 Define the concept of 'outsourcing'.

Case study · CBSE 2026

The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth. Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the 'Knowledge Sector' and there has been a very high growth in demand for consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and statisticians. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors' offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services. Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.

Q44.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Define the concept of 'outsourcing'.

Case study · CBSE 2025

There are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation, etc., require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

Q45.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Describe any one example of the relationship between primary and secondary sectors.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Explain any one difference between secondary and tertiary sectors.

Q47.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

How can a person avail services of a professional?

Case study · CBSE 2024

Services Services occur at many different levels. Some are geared to industry, some to people, and some to both industry and people, e.g., the transport systems. Services, such as grocery shops and laundries are more common and widespread than high-order services or more specialized ones like those of accountants, consultants and physicians. Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example, the gardener, the launderers and the barber do primarily physical labour. Teachers, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour. Many services have now been regulated. Making and maintaining highways and bridges, maintaining fire fighting departments and supplying or supervising education and customer care are among the important services most often supervised or performed by governments or companies. State and Union legislation have established corporations to supervise and control the marketing of such services as transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply. Professional services are primarily health care, engineering, law and management. The location of recreational and entertainment services depends on the market.

Q48.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

(18.1) Mention any one example of common and widespread services.

Q49.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Mention any one example of common and widespread services.

Case study · CBSE 2024

Services occur at many different levels. Some are geared to industry, some to people, and some to both industry and people, e.g., the transport systems. Services, such as grocery shops and laundries are more common and widespread than high-order services or more specialized ones like those of accountants, consultants and physicians. Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example, the gardener, the launderers and the barber do primarily physical labour. Teachers, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour. Many services have now been regulated. Making and maintaining highways and bridges, maintaining fire fighting departments and supplying or supervising education and customer care are among the important services most often supervised or performed by governments or companies. State and Union legislation have established corporations to supervise and control the marketing of such services as transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply. Professional services are primarily health care, engineering, law and management. The location of recreational and entertainment services depends on the market.

Q50.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

(18.1) Mention any one example of common and widespread services.

Case study · CBSE 2023

When you fall ill you go to your family doctor or you call a doctor. Sometimes your parents take you to a hospital for treatment. While in school, you are taught by your teachers. In the event of any dispute, legal opinion is obtained from a lawyer. Likewise, there are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation etc. require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

Q51.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(18.1) Explain the main difference between secondary and tertiary activities.

Q52.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the main difference between secondary and tertiary activities.

7Transport and Communication Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (9)

Q1.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following sea ports from Europe to India before the operation of Suez Canal and choose the correct option. I. Cape Town II. Mombasa III. London IV. Mumbai

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. I, III, II, IV
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. III, I, II, IV
Q2.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following stations of Trans-Siberian Railway from west to east locations and choose the correct option. I. Chita II. Moscow III. Omsk IV. Kazan

  1. II, IV, I, III
  2. II, IV, III, I
  3. IV, II, III, I
  4. IV, II, I, III
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following sea ports connecting the western part of United States of America (USA) to western Europe and choose the correct option. I. Honolulu II. London III. San Francisco IV. Colon

  1. I, III, IV, II
  2. I, III, II, IV
  3. III, I, II, IV
  4. III, I, IV, II
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the busiest oceanic route in the world?

  1. Between Yokohama and Vancouver
  2. Between Auckland and Honolulu
  3. Between San Francisco and New York
  4. Between London and Aden
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following sea route connects Vancouver and Yokohama?

  1. South Atlantic sea route
  2. North Pacific sea route
  3. North Atlantic sea route
  4. Mediterranean-Indian Ocean sea route
Q6.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following waterways is related to United States of America?

  1. Danube
  2. Volga
  3. Rhine
  4. Mississippi
Q7.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is known as Big Inch Pipeline?

  1. Iran - India via Pakistan
  2. Iran - China via Afghanistan
  3. Hazira - Vijaypur to Jagdishpur
  4. Gulf of Mexico to northeastern USA
Q8.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Study the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement I: With the digitisation of information, telecommunication slowly merged with computers. Statement II: It resulted in integrated networks termed as Internet.

  1. Only Statement I is correct.
  2. Only Statement II is correct.
  3. Statements I and II both are correct, Statement II is the correct result of Statement I.
  4. Statements I and II both are correct, Statement II is not the correct result of Statement I.
Q9.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following sea routes is the busiest in the world?

  1. The North Pacific Sea Route
  2. The South Pacific Sea Route
  3. The Northern Atlantic Sea Route
  4. The Southern Atlantic Sea Route

Short answer (1)

Q10.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the importance of the 'Northern Atlantic Sea Route'.

Long answer (13)

Q11.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"Railway is the mode of land transport for bulky goods and passengers over long distances." In the context of this statement, explain the significance of railways in the world.

Q12.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Roads play a vital role in trade and commerce of a country across the world. Support the statement with examples.

Q13.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. Explain its main features.

Q14.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Name the canal linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. Explain its main features.

Q15.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the characteristics of Trans-Siberian Railway.

Q16.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Describe the development of railways in Europe and Russia.

Q17.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Pipelines are used extensively in the world for the transportation of liquid and gaseous substances. Justify this statement with appropriate reasons.

Q18.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Pipelines are extensively used in the world to transport liquids and gases. Support this statement with appropriate reasons.

Q19.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Examine the importance of Trans-Siberian Railway.

Q20.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Define Trans-Continental Railway. Explain any four characteristics of Trans-Canadian Railway.

Q21.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

(a) Define the term 'Trans-oceanic railway'. Explain any four characteristics of the Trans-Canadian Railway.

Q22.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Define trans-continental railway route. Explain any four characteristics of Trans-Canadian Railway.

Q23.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Trans-Canadian Railway line is considered as the economic artery of Canada. Evaluate the statement.

Case-based (1)

Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Name any one international airport of Argentina.

8International Trade Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (27)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option related to oil tanker ports of the world.

  1. Maracaibo, Tripoli, Singapore
  2. Esskhira, Singapore, Manchester
  3. Maracaibo, Esskhira, Tripoli
  4. Manchester, Esskhira, Marmagao
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): All the developed countries have opened their markets for products from developing countries. Reason (R): World Trade Organisation deals with the global rules of trade between nations.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option related to 'ports of call'.

  1. Honolulu, Tripoli, Rotterdam
  2. Singapore, Kochchi, Tripoli
  3. Singapore, Honolulu, Aden
  4. Aden, Kochchi, Rotterdam
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following types of ports is categorised on the basis of function ?

  1. Out port
  2. Oil port
  3. Inland port
  4. Comprehensive port
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not the base of 'international trade' ?

  1. Differences in national resources
  2. Stage of economic development
  3. Level of transport development
  4. Social diversity in the country
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the most appropriate option: Column I (Type of Port) - a. Packet station, b. Naval port, c. Port of call, d. Entrepot port; Column II (Example) - i. Kochi, ii. Copenhagen, iii. Dover, iv. Honolulu

  1. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  2. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  3. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  4. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option related to 'entrepot port':

  1. Memphis, Copenhagen, Tripoli
  2. Memphis, Singapore, Manchester
  3. Rotterdam, Copenhagen, Singapore
  4. Rotterdam, Tripoli, Manchester
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): International trade is mutually beneficial to nations. Reason (R): It helps in getting the needed items from other countries.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I (Basis of International Trade): a. Geological structure, b. Mineral resources, c. Climate, d. Cultural factors. Column-II (Feature): i. It determines the biotic life. ii. It determines the mineral resource base. iii. It provides the base for industrial development. iv. The development of crafts and skills is determined by it.

  1. a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv
  2. a → ii, b → iii, c → iv, d → i
  3. a → iii, b → ii, c → iv, d → i
  4. a → iii, b → ii, c → i, d → iv
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair of sea ports and their examples.

  1. Out Ports - Duisburg
  2. Ports of Call - Piraeus
  3. Oil Ports - Tripoli
  4. Naval Ports - Kolkata
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following ports is operational for shorter distances?

  1. Packet Station
  2. Ports of Call
  3. Out Ports
  4. Entrepot Ports
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair of ports: Port - Example

  1. Naval Port - Abadan
  2. Entrepot Port - Kochchi
  3. Oil Port - Esskhira
  4. Commercial Port - Dover
Q13.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The ports specialised in bulk cargo are called:

  1. Inland Ports
  2. Industrial Ports
  3. Out Ports
  4. Comprehensive Ports
Q14.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): International trade is mutually beneficial to nations. Reason (R): It helps in getting the needed items from other countries. Choose the correct option.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q15.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The ports which are linked to the sea through a canal are called:

  1. Inland Ports
  2. Commercial Ports
  3. Out Ports
  4. Industrial Ports
Q16.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the disadvantage of free trade for developing countries ?

  1. Goods exchanging
  2. Goods dumping
  3. Goods purchasing
  4. Goods selling
Q17.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option from the following related to World Trade Organisation (WTO).

  1. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was its predecessor
  2. 149 countries were its members as of 2016
  3. India became its member in 1984
  4. Its headquarters is located in New York
Q18.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as:

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

  1. Trade liberalisation
  2. Trade restriction
  3. Trade value
  4. Trade quantity
Q19.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of which countries?

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

  1. Developed countries
  2. Developing countries
  3. Both under-developed and developed countries
  4. Both developed and developing countries
Q20.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

What is the meaning of free trade?

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

  1. Trade liberalisation
  2. Trade restriction
  3. Trade value
  4. Trade quantity
Q21.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

According to the passage, which countries should be cautious about free trade?

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

  1. Developed countries
  2. Developing countries
  3. Both under-developed and developed countries
  4. Both developed and developing countries
Q22.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The ports which have strategic importance are called:

  1. Packet Stations
  2. Industrial Ports
  3. Comprehensive Ports
  4. Naval Ports
Q23.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following organisations sets the rules for the global trading among its member nations ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. United Nations
  2. World Trade Organisation
  3. North American Free Trade Association
  4. South Asian Free Trade Agreement
Q24.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Countries need to be cautious about dumped goods under free trade. Reason (R): Dumping of goods can harm the domestic producers.

  1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Q25.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an example of an entrepôt port?

  1. Abadan
  2. Maracaibo
  3. Singapore
  4. Tripoli
Q26.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of an Oil Port?

  1. Tripoli
  2. Honolulu
  3. Singapore
  4. Kochchi
Q27.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of an entrepôt port?

  1. Abadan
  2. Maracaibo
  3. Singapore
  4. Tripoli

Short answer (6)

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

"Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries." Support the statement with suitable arguments.

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

"International trade is mutually beneficial to nations." Support the statement with suitable arguments.

Q30.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

"The difficulties of barter system were overcome by the introduction of money." Support the statement with suitable arguments.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

How does the population size of a country affect the international trade in the world? Explain.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the importance of international trade in modern times.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain the criticisms faced by the World Trade Organization.

Long answer (5)

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Describe any five types of ports in the world, on the basis of specialized functions.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Describe any five basis of international trade in the world.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain balance of trade with examples and examine the role of World Trade Organisation (WTO) in international trade.

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Define International Trade. Describe two types of International Trade in the world.

Q38.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain the role of the World Trade Organization for international trade.

Case-based (7)

Case study · CBSE 2026

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade, dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

Q39.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

(18.1) Define the term 'globalisation'.

Q40.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Define the term 'globalisation'.

Q41.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the act of opening up economies for trading by bringing down trade barriers?

  1. Trade liberalisation
  2. Trade restriction
  3. Trade value
  4. Trade quantity
Q42.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The most adverse effect of free trade is faced by which of the following?

  1. Developed countries
  2. Developing countries
  3. Both under-developed and developed countries
  4. Both developed and developing countries
Q43.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the impact of the development of transport and communication on trade?

  1. Goods and services travel faster
  2. Goods and services move farther
  3. Goods and services travel faster and move farther
  4. Better connectivity only in a region concerned

Case study · CBSE 2026

Case for Free Trade. The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade, dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

Q44.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Define the term 'globalisation'.

Case study · CBSE 2025

In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.

Q45.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

What types of items are exported by the industrialised nations?

9Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (40)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the most appropriate option related to the major speech areas of the 'Indo-European' language family.

  1. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka
  2. West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh
  3. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
  4. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

During which one of the following phase of population growth in India, negative growth was recorded in a decade?

  1. Phase I
  2. Phase II
  3. Phase III
  4. Phase IV
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following phases is associated with gradual slowing down of population growth in India?

  1. Phase I
  2. Phase II
  3. Phase III
  4. Phase IV
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

During which one of the following decades, the population growth in India was negative ?

  1. 1911 to 1921
  2. 1931 to 1941
  3. 1951 to 1961
  4. 1971 to 1981
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following phases of population growth in India is referred to as 'period of steady population growth'?

  1. Phase I
  2. Phase II
  3. Phase III
  4. Phase IV
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The natural rate of increase is continuously in an increasing order in which of the following phase of population growth ?

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 – 2011

  1. Phase-I
  2. Phase-II
  3. Phase-III
  4. Phase-IV
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the duration of 'Phase-III' of population growth from the following.

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 – 2011

  1. 1921 – 1951
  2. 1931 – 1961
  3. 1941 – 1971
  4. 1951 – 1981
Q8.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The lowest crude birth rate was recorded in which of the following decades ?

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 – 2011

  1. 1971 – 1981
  2. 1981 – 1991
  3. 1991 – 2001
  4. 2001 – 2011
Q9.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the right group of states where Dravidian language is spoken majorly.

  1. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
  2. Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
  3. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
  4. Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh
Q10.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the right group of states where Dravadian language is spoken majorly.

  1. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
  2. Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
  3. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
  4. Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh
Q11.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following set of states have the lowest percentage of urban population ?

  1. Madhya Pradesh and Kerala
  2. Punjab and Gujarat
  3. Goa and Maharashtra
  4. Bihar and Himachal Pradesh
Q12.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following set of states has the highest percentage of urban population?

  1. Gujarat and Maharashtra
  2. Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh
  3. Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh
  4. Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
Q13.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is known as the phase of population explosion in India ?

  1. Phase I
  2. Phase II
  3. Phase III
  4. Phase IV
Q14.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following defines the 'main worker' according to Census of India (2011)?

  1. One who works for more than 303 days in a year.
  2. One who works for more than 283 days in a year.
  3. One who works at least 203 days in a year.
  4. One who works at least 183 days in a year.
Q15.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : In recent decades, the urban population of India has grown rapidly. Reason (R) : In India, the workforce is shifting from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q16.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The lowest crude birth rate was recorded in which of the following decades ?

  1. 1971 – 1981
  2. 1981 – 1991
  3. 1991 – 2001
  4. 2001 – 2011
Q17.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the duration of 'Phase-III' of population growth from the following.

  1. 1921 – 1951
  2. 1931 – 1961
  3. 1941 – 1971
  4. 1951 – 1981
Q18.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The natural rate of increase is continuously in an increasing order in which of the following phase of population growth ?

  1. Phase-I
  2. Phase-II
  3. Phase-III
  4. Phase-IV
Q19.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which of the following are branches of Dravidian language in India? Choose the correct option. I. Central Dravidian II. East Dravidian III. South Dravidian IV. North Dravidian

  1. Only I, II and III
  2. Only II, III and IV
  3. Only I, III and IV
  4. Only I, II and IV
Q20.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option. I. Stagnant phase of population growth II. Low or negative net growth of population III. Rapid fall in the mortality rate IV. Poor health and medical services

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q21.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the reason for relatively slow growth in population in India?

  1. High female literacy and declining population
  2. Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  3. Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  4. Low population growth and low net increase
Q22.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is responsible for the decline in population growth in India?

  1. High female literacy and declining population
  2. Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  3. Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  4. Low population growth and low net increase
Q23.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following led to rapid growth in India?

  1. High female literacy and declining population
  2. Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  3. Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  4. Low population growth and low net increase
Q24.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? List-I (Term) - List-II (Meaning)

  1. Physiological density - Total population / Net cultivated area
  2. Agricultural density - Total agricultural population / Net cultivable area
  3. Population density - Total population / Total area
  4. Marginal worker - Total population / Total working population
Q25.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): India has highly uneven pattern of population distribution. Reason (R): Population distribution is highly associated with physical, socio-economic and historical factors.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q26.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a challenge of adolescent population faced by the society?

  1. High marriage age
  2. Drug abuse and alcoholism
  3. Low female literacy
  4. Dropouts from school
Q27.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? List-I (Term) and List-II (Meaning)

  1. Physiological density - Total population / Net cultivated area
  2. Agricultural density - Total agricultural population / Net cultivable area
  3. Population density - Total population / Total area
  4. Marginal worker - Total population / Total working population
Q28.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? List-I (Term) - List-II (Meaning) (A) Physiological density - Total population / Net cultivated area (B) Agricultural density - Total agricultural population / Net cultivable area (C) Population density - Total population / Total area (D) Marginal worker - Total population / Total working population

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Q29.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option. I. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more workers. II. Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the economy of the country. III. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector. IV. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q30.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a characteristic of tertiarisation? Read the statements and choose the correct option. I. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more workers. II. Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the economy of the country. III. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector. IV. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q31.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the characteristics of tertiarisation in the economy and choose the correct option. I. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more workers. II. Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the economy of the country. III. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector. IV. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q32.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following language groups is the smallest in India ?

  1. Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri
  2. Kannada, Tamil and Telugu
  3. Dogri, Punjabi and Konkani
  4. Maithili, Gujarati and Bangla
Q33.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following objectives regarding National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (2015) carefully and choose the most appropriate option: I. To improve the literacy rate of different age groups in India. II. To provide umbrella framework to all skilling activities. III. To align all skilling activities to common standards. IV. To link skilling activities with demand centres.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q34.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option in order of number of people speaking modern Indian languages from maximum to minimum:

  1. Indo-European, Dravidian, Austric and Sino-Tibetan
  2. Indo-European, Austric, Dravidian and Sino-Tibetan
  3. Indo-European, Dravidian, Sino-Tibetan and Austric
  4. Dravidian, Austric, Indo-European and Sino-Tibetan
Q35.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which of the following groups of states are Dravidian languages spoken?

  1. Assam, Nagaland, Manipur
  2. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa
  3. Odisha, West Bengal, Bihar
  4. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala
Q36.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following states has the highest population growth rate during 2001 to 2011 decade?

  1. Manipur
  2. Nagaland
  3. Mizoram
  4. Sikkim
Q37.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which of the following states has the lowest density of population?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Nagaland
  3. Mizoram
  4. Sikkim
Q38.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

The 2011 Census has divided the working population of India into four major categories. Select the correct option related to the major categories.

  1. Cultivators, Agricultural labourers, Household industrial workers and Other workers
  2. Agricultural labourers, Household industrial workers, Health workers and Other workers
  3. Agricultural labourers, Household industrial workers, Rail workers and Other workers
  4. Household industrial workers, Cultivators, Rail workers and Other workers
Q39.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the smallest linguistic group in India ?

  1. Austric
  2. Dravidian
  3. Indo-European
  4. Sino-Tibetan
Q40.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following states has the highest population ?

  1. Bihar
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Maharashtra
  4. West Bengal

Very short answer (1)

Q41.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Describe any one ill-effect of gender discrimination on a society.

Promoting Gender Sensitivity. The division of the society into male, female and transgender is believed to be natural and biological. But, in reality, there are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions. Consequently, these biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions. The exclusion of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society. It is a global challenge, which has been general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity. All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar types of work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life, etc. A society, which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discriminations, cannot be treated as a civilised one.

Short answer (9)

Q42.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

The adolescent people of India have high potential but they are quite vulnerable. Explain the statement.

Q43.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain any three characteristics of Phase II of growth of population in India.

Q44.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Analyse the main characteristics of rural-urban composition of population in India.

Q45.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain any three characteristics of Phase I of growth of population in India.

Q46.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Why is Phase I (1901–1921) of growth of population referred to as a stagnant phase? Explain by giving any three arguments.

Q47.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Why is Phase III (1951–1981) of growth of population referred to as the period of population explosion in India ? Explain by giving any three arguments.

Q48.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Why is Phase II (1921-1951) of growth of population referred to as the period of steady population growth in India? Explain by giving any three arguments.

Q49.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the causes of negative growth of population in India between 1911 and 1921.

Q50.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Examine the "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao" campaign launched by the Government of India.

Long answer (11)

Q51.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"India has a highly uneven pattern of population distribution." Support the statement with examples.

Q52.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"The distribution of rural population is uneven across India." Evaluate the statement.

Q53.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"The government of India's campaign 'Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao' is an effective step to empower women." Justify the statement.

Q54.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"There are many challenges for the society to channelise adolescents in right direction." Evaluate the statement.

Q55.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the factors that influence population distribution.

Q56.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Analyse the regional variation in population growth in India.

Q57.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyse the major problems of youth population in India. Suggest two measures to overcome the problems.

Q58.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain any five factors affecting the uneven distribution of population in India.

Q59.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain the various factors affecting density of population in India.

Q60.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain the important aspects of population growth with special reference to the growth of adolescents and National Youth Policy, 2014 of India.

Q61.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain the occupational structure of India's population.

Case-based (5)

Case study · CBSE 2026

Sectoral composition of workforce in India, 2011

Q62.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Why is the large difference between primary and tertiary categories of female workers?

Case study · CBSE 2026

Sectoral composition of workforce in India, 2011: Primary - 26,30,22,473 (54.6%) - Male: 16,54,47,075, Female: 9,75,75,398; Secondary - 1,83,36,307 (3.8%) - Male: 97,75,635, Female: 85,60,672; Tertiary - 20,03,84,531 (41.6%) - Male: 15,66,43,220, Female: 4,37,41,311

Q63.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Why is the large difference between primary and tertiary categories of female workers?

Case study · CBSE 2025

Promoting Gender Sensitivity through Campaigns. The division of the society into male, female and transgender is believed to be natural and biological. But, in reality, there are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions. Consequently, these biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions. The exclusion of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society. It is a global challenge, which has been general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity. All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar types of work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life, etc. A society, which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discriminations, cannot be treated as a civilised one. The Government of India has duly acknowledged the adverse impacts of these discriminations and launched a nationwide campaign called.

Q64.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Describe any one ill-effect of gender discrimination on a society.

Case study · CBSE 2025

The division of the society into male, female and transgender is believed to be natural and biological. But, in reality, there are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions. Consequently, these biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions. The exclusion of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society. It is a global challenge, which has been general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity. All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar types of work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life, etc. A society, which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discriminations, cannot be treated as a civilised one. The Government of India has duly acknowleged the adverse impacts of these discriminations and launched a nationwide campaign.

Q65.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Describe any one ill-effect of gender discrimination on a society.

Q66.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Name the state with lowest level of population density.

10Human Settlements Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (14)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): In recent decades, the urban population of India has grown rapidly. Reason (R): In India, the workforce is shifting from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q2.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Lack of basic necessities such as housing, health and drinking water, etc. are found in slum settlements. Reason (R):

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q3.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following towns of India from the oldest to the newest on the basis of their evolution and choose the correct option. I. Lucknow, II. Varanasi, III. Bhilai, IV. Jamshedpur

  1. I, IV, III, II
  2. I, IV, II, III
  3. II, I, IV, III
  4. II, I, III, IV
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an industrial town in India?

  1. Salem
  2. Chandigarh
  3. Nainital
  4. Shillong
Q5.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair.

  1. Mining - Singrauli
  2. Garrison - Kandla
  3. Transport - Modinagar
  4. Administrative - Pilani
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair. (Town) (Example)

  1. Mining - Singrauli
  2. Garrison - Kandla
  3. Transport - Modinagar
  4. Administrative - Pilani
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Lack of basic necessities such as housing, health and drinking water, etc. are found in slum settlements.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q8.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a reason for the emergence of clustered settlements in Rajasthan ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. For the maximum utilization of land resources.
  2. For external security and defence.
  3. For maximum utilization of available water resources.
  4. For internal security and defence.
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Study the following statements carefully and choose the correct option : Statement I : In India, after independence, some old towns around metropolitan cities developed as satellite towns. Statement II : Delhi is a good example of such metropolitan cities.

  1. Only statement I is correct.
  2. Only statement II is correct.
  3. Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct example of statement I.
  4. Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct example of statement I.
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option regarding mining towns of India:

  1. Kandla, Kochchi and Kozhikode
  2. Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi
  3. Mumbai, Salem and Modinagar
  4. Varanasi, Roorki and Aligarh
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Study the following statements carefully and choose the correct option: Statement I: In India, after independence, some old towns around metropolitan cities developed as satellite towns. Statement II: Delhi is a good example of such metropolitan cities. Options:

  1. Only statement I is correct.
  2. Only statement II is correct.
  3. Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct example of statement I.
  4. Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct example of statement I.
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : Column I: i. Transport city, ii. Mining town, iii. Garrison town, iv. Administrative town Column II: 1. Jaipur, 2. Ambala, 3. Itarsi, 4. Singrauli

  1. i → 4, ii → 3, iii → 2, iv → 1
  2. i → 1, ii → 2, iii → 3, iv → 4
  3. i → 3, ii → 4, iii → 2, iv → 1
  4. i → 2, ii → 1, iii → 4, iv → 3
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the feature of clustered settlements ?

  1. They are fragmented
  2. They are isolated
  3. Closely built-up area of houses
  4. Units are known as panna, para, palli etc.
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : Column I - Column II i. Transport city - 1. Jaipur ii. Mining town - 2. Ambala iii. Garrison town - 3. Itarsi iv. Administrative town - 4. Singrauli

  1. i→4, ii→3, iii→2, iv→1
  2. i→1, ii→2, iii→3, iv→4
  3. i→3, ii→4, iii→2, iv→1
  4. i→2, ii→1, iii→4, iv→3

Very short answer (7)

Q15.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Mention the increase in number of towns/UAs in 1991 in comparison to 1941.

India Trends of Urbanisation - Year: Number of Towns/UAs: Urban Population (in Thousands): % of Total Population: Decennial Growth (%): 1931: 2,072: 33,456.0: 11.99: 19.12: 1941: 2,250: 44,153.3: 13.86: 31.97: 1951: 2,843: 62,443.7: 17.29: 41.42: 1961: 2,365: 78,936.6: 17.97: 26.41: 1971: 2,590: 1,09,114: 19.91: 38.23: 1981: 3,378: 1,59,463: 23.34: 46.14: 1991: 4,689: 2,17,611: 25.71: 36.47: 2001: 5,161: 2,85,355: 27.78: 31.13

Q16.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which decade is the minimum increase in the percentage of urban population recorded?

India Trends of Urbanisation - Year: Number of Towns/UAs: Urban Population (in Thousands): % of Total Population: Decennial Growth (%): 1931: 2,072: 33,456.0: 11.99: 19.12: 1941: 2,250: 44,153.3: 13.86: 31.97: 1951: 2,843: 62,443.7: 17.29: 41.42: 1961: 2,365: 78,936.6: 17.97: 26.41: 1971: 2,590: 1,09,114: 19.91: 38.23: 1981: 3,378: 1,59,463: 23.34: 46.14: 1991: 4,689: 2,17,611: 25.71: 36.47: 2001: 5,161: 2,85,355: 27.78: 31.13

Q17.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Describe the decennial growth of urbanisation.

India Trends of Urbanisation - Year: Number of Towns/UAs: Urban Population (in Thousands): % of Total Population: Decennial Growth (%): 1931: 2,072: 33,456.0: 11.99: 19.12: 1941: 2,250: 44,153.3: 13.86: 31.97: 1951: 2,843: 62,443.7: 17.29: 41.42: 1961: 2,365: 78,936.6: 17.97: 26.41: 1971: 2,590: 1,09,114: 19.91: 38.23: 1981: 3,378: 1,59,463: 23.34: 46.14: 1991: 4,689: 2,17,611: 25.71: 36.47: 2001: 5,161: 2,85,355: 27.78: 31.13

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

With reference to 1951, how much change has taken place in the percentage of total population in 1991?

India Trends of Urbanisation. Year: 1931, 1941, 1951, 1961, 1971, 1981, 1991, 2001. Number of Towns/UAs: 2,072, 2,250, 2,843, 2,365, 2,590, 3,378, 4,689, 5,161. Urban Population (in Thousands): 33,456.0, 44,153.3, 62,443.7, 78,936.6, 1,09,114, 1,59,463, 2,17,611, 2,85,355. % of Total Population: 11.99, 13.86, 17.29, 17.97, 19.91, 23.34, 25.71, 27.78. Decennial Growth (%): 19.12, 31.97, 41.42, 26.41, 38.23, 46.14, 36.47, 31.13.

Q19.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Rural settlements near cities provide services to nearby towns. Explain this statement.

Q20.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Rural settlement centres in close proximity to towns support nearby towns. Explain this statement.

Q21.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Rural settlements near are surrounded by settlements. Explain this statement.

Short answer (21)

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the main characteristics of urban settlements in India.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the characteristics of clustered rural settlements in India.

Q24.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

"Many of the towns in India are multifunctional." Analyse the statement.

Q25.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the main characteristics of hamleted rural settlements in India.

Q26.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the characteristics of dispersed rural settlements in India.

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the difference between hamleted and dispersed rural settlements in India with examples.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the objectives of 'Smart Cities Mission' in India.

Q29.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the evolution of towns in India with examples.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which decade is the maximum increase in number of towns/UAs observed?

India Trends of Urbanisation Year | Number of Towns/UAs | Urban Population (in Thousands) | % of Total Population | Decennial Growth (%) 1931 | 2,072 | 33,456.0 | 11.99 | 19.12 1941 | 2,250 | 44,153.3 | 13.86 | 31.97 1951 | 2,843 | 62,443.7 | 17.29 | 41.42 1961 | 2,365 | 78,936.6 | 17.97 | 26.41 1971 | 2,590 | 1,09,114 | 19.91 | 38.23 1981 | 3,378 | 1,59,463 | 23.34 | 46.14 1991 | 4,689 | 2,17,611 | 25.71 | 36.47 2001 | 5,161 | 2,85,355 | 27.78 | 31.13

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

In which decade is the maximum increase in number of towns/UAs observed?

India Trends of Urbanisation. Year 1931: Number of Towns/UAs 2,072, Urban Population (in Thousands) 33,456.0, % of Total Population 11.99, Decennial Growth (%) 19.12. Year 1941: 2,250, 44,153.3, 13.86, 31.97. Year 1951: 2,843, 62,443.7, 17.29, 41.42. Year 1961: 2,365, 78,936.6, 17.97, 26.41. Year 1971: 2,590, 1,09,114, 19.91, 38.23. Year 1981: 3,378, 1,59,463, 23.34, 46.14. Year 1991: 4,689, 2,17,611, 25.71, 36.47. Year 2001: 5,161, 2,85,355, 27.78, 31.13.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Distinguish between planned settlement and unplanned settlement.

Q33.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Mention the increase in number of towns/UAs in 1991 in comparison to 1941.

Q34.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

With reference to 1951, how much change has taken place in the percentage of total population in 1991?

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Differentiate between the clustered and hamleted settlements in India.

Q36.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain with examples, the classification of Indian towns on the basis of their evolution.

Q37.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three factors responsible for the development of different types of rural settlements in India.

Q38.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe any three characteristics of clustered settlements in India.

Q39.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain any three basic differences between rural and urban settlements in India.

Q40.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Villages around cities benefit both directly and indirectly from these cities. Explain the statement.

Q41.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Examine any three causes for the development of compact rural settlements in India.

Q42.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

How is a rural settlement centre different from an urban settlement centre? Explain.

Long answer (2)

Q43.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

After independence of the country, the growth of Indian towns has been uneven. Justify this statement.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Justify the statement: 'Rapid urbanisation creates both adequate and inadequate facilities to support the fast growing population in cities.'

Case-based (6)

Case study · CBSE 2026

India – Trends of Urbanisation 1961-2011: Year 1961, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,365, Urban Population (in Thousands): 78,936.6, % of Total population: 17.97, Decennial Growth: –; Year 1971, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,590, Urban Population: 1,09,114, % of Total population: 19.91, Decennial Growth: 38.23; Year 1981, Number of Towns/UAs: 3,378, Urban Population: 1,59,463, % of Total population: 23.34, Decennial Growth: 46.14; Year 1991, Number of Towns/UAs: 4,689, Urban Population: 2,17,611, % of Total population: 25.71, Decennial Growth: 36.47; Year 2001, Number of Towns/UAs: 5,161, Urban Population: 2,85,355, % of Total population: 27.78, Decennial Growth: 31.13; Year 2011, Number of Towns/UAs: 6,171, Urban Population: 3,77,000, % of Total population: 31.16, Decennial Growth: 31.08

Q45.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

During which decade, the net increase in number of towns/UAs is the lowest?

Case study · CBSE 2025

India Trends of Urbanisation - Year: 1931, 1941, 1951, 1961, 1971, 1981, 1991, 2001. Number of Towns/UAs: 2,072, 2,250, 2,843, 2,365, 2,590, 3,378, 4,689, 5,161. Urban Population (in Thousands): 33,456.0, 44,153.3, 62,443.7, 78,936.6, 1,09,114, 1,59,463, 2,17,611, 2,85,355. Percentage of Total Population: 11.99, 13.86, 17.29, 17.97, 19.91, 23.34, 25.71, 27.78. Decennial Growth (%): 19.12, 31.97, 41.42, 26.41, 38.23, 46.14, 36.47, 31.13.

Q46.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

In which decade is the maximum increase in number of towns/UAs observed?

Case study · CBSE 2023

India Trends of Urbanisation 1901–2011. Year: 1901, Number of Towns/UAs: 1,827, Urban Population (in Thousands): 25,851.9, % of Total Population: 10.84. Year: 1911, Number of Towns/UAs: 1,815, Urban Population (in Thousands): 25,941.6, % of Total Population: 10.29, Decennial Growth (%): 0.35. Year: 1921, Number of Towns/UAs: 1,949, Urban Population (in Thousands): 28,086.2, % of Total Population: 11.18, Decennial Growth (%): 8.27. Year: 1931, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,072, Urban Population (in Thousands): 33,456.0, % of Total Population: 11.99, Decennial Growth (%): 19.12. Year: 1941, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,250, Urban Population (in Thousands): 44,153.3, % of Total Population: 13.86, Decennial Growth (%): 31.97. Year: 1951, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,843, Urban Population (in Thousands): 62,443.7, % of Total Population: 17.29, Decennial Growth (%): 41.42. Year: 1961, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,365, Urban Population (in Thousands): 78,936.6, % of Total Population: 17.97, Decennial Growth (%): 26.41. Year: 1971, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,590, Urban Population (in Thousands): 1,09,114, % of Total Population: 19.91, Decennial Growth (%): 38.23. Year: 1981, Number of Towns/UAs: 3,378, Urban Population (in Thousands): 1,59,463, % of Total Population: 23.34, Decennial Growth (%): 46.14. Year: 1991, Number of Towns/UAs: 4,689, Urban Population (in Thousands): 2,17,611, % of Total Population: 25.71, Decennial Growth (%): 36.47. Year: 2001, Number of Towns/UAs: 5,161, Urban Population (in Thousands): 2,85,355, % of Total Population: 27.78, Decennial Growth (%): 31.13. Year: 2011, Number of Towns/UAs: 6,171, Urban Population (in Thousands): 3,77,000, % of Total Population: 31.16, Decennial Growth (%): 31.08.

Q47.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(19.1) In which year was the decennial growth of urban population the highest in India ?

Case study · CBSE 2023

India Trends of Urbanisation 1901-2011: Year | Number of Towns/UAs | Urban Population (in Thousands) | % of Total Population | Decennial Growth (%) | 1901 | 1,827 | 25,851.9 | 10.84 | - | 1911 | 1,815 | 25,941.6 | 10.29 | 0.35 | 1921 | 1,949 | 28,086.2 | 11.18 | 8.27 | 1931 | 2,072 | 33,456.0 | 11.99 | 19.12 | 1941 | 2,250 | 44,153.3 | 13.86 | 31.97 | 1951 | 2,843 | 62,443.7 | 17.29 | 41.42 | 1961 | 2,365 | 78,936.6 | 17.97 | 26.41 | 1971 | 2,590 | 1,09,114 | 19.91 | 38.23 | 1981 | 3,378 | 1,59,463 | 23.34 | 46.14 | 1991 | 4,689 | 2,17,611 | 25.71 | 36.47 | 2001 | 5,161 | 2,85,355 | 27.78 | 31.13 | 2011 | 6,171 | 3,77,000 | 31.16 | 31.08 |

Q48.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which year was the decennial growth of urban population the highest in India?

Case study · CBSE 2023

India Trends of Urbanisation 1901–2011. Year: 1901, Number of Towns/UAs: 1,827, Urban Population (in Thousands): 25,851.9, % of Total Population: 10.84, Decennial Growth (%): —. Year: 1911, Number of Towns/UAs: 1,815, Urban Population (in Thousands): 25,941.6, % of Total Population: 10.29, Decennial Growth (%): 0.35. Year: 1921, Number of Towns/UAs: 1,949, Urban Population (in Thousands): 28,086.2, % of Total Population: 11.18, Decennial Growth (%): 8.27. Year: 1931, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,072, Urban Population (in Thousands): 33,456.0, % of Total Population: 11.99, Decennial Growth (%): 19.12. Year: 1941, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,250, Urban Population (in Thousands): 44,153.3, % of Total Population: 13.86, Decennial Growth (%): 31.97. Year: 1951, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,843, Urban Population (in Thousands): 62,443.7, % of Total Population: 17.29, Decennial Growth (%): 41.42. Year: 1961, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,365, Urban Population (in Thousands): 78,936.6, % of Total Population: 17.97, Decennial Growth (%): 26.41. Year: 1971, Number of Towns/UAs: 2,590, Urban Population (in Thousands): 1,09,114, % of Total Population: 19.91, Decennial Growth (%): 38.23. Year: 1981, Number of Towns/UAs: 3,378, Urban Population (in Thousands): 1,59,463, % of Total Population: 23.34, Decennial Growth (%): 46.14. Year: 1991, Number of Towns/UAs: 4,689, Urban Population (in Thousands): 2,17,611, % of Total Population: 25.71, Decennial Growth (%): 36.47. Year: 2001, Number of Towns/UAs: 5,161, Urban Population (in Thousands): 2,85,355, % of Total Population: 27.78, Decennial Growth (%): 31.13. Year: 2011, Number of Towns/UAs: 6,171, Urban Population (in Thousands): 3,77,000, % of Total Population: 31.16, Decennial Growth (%): 31.08.

Q49.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(19.1) In which year was the decennial growth of urban population the highest in India?

Q50.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Name the city of West Bengal having more than 10 million population.

11Land Resources and Agriculture Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (14)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a natural process of land degradation?

  1. Mining activities
  2. Gully erosion
  3. Industrial waste
  4. Shifting cultivation
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option related to major Kharif crops of the North India.

  1. Jowar, Barley, Mustard
  2. Bajra, Gram, Mustard
  3. Rice, Barley, Gram
  4. Rice, Jowar, Bajra
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: (Crop) (Leading Producer State)

  1. Maize Bihar
  2. Jute West Bengal
  3. Groundnut Rajasthan
  4. Sunflower Punjab
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the most appropriate option related to major crops of plantation farming in India.

  1. Sugarcane, Cotton, Rubber
  2. Banana, Rubber, Maize
  3. Sugarcane, Banana, Wheat
  4. Cotton, Maize, Wheat
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following : (Crop) (Leading State in Production)

  1. Wheat - Madhya Pradesh
  2. Rice - Punjab
  3. Groundnut - Gujarat
  4. Cotton - Haryana
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the most appropriate option related to the crops under 'Zaid' cropping season in the states of Southern India.

  1. Rice, Fodder, Vegetables
  2. Vegetables, Sugarcane, Cotton
  3. Fodder, Oil seeds, Cotton
  4. Rice, Sugarcane, Oil seeds
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following features and identify the crop. It is a tropical plantation crop and has three varieties. Karnataka alone accounts for more than two-third of its total production of India. It is grown in the highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka and Kerala. Crop:

  1. Sugarcane
  2. Tea
  3. Coffee
  4. Cotton
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option. I. Wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains in India. II. Wheat is grown in monsoonal areas only. III. Millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern India. IV. Wheat, soyabean etc. are grown in northern China.

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and III are correct.
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

What is the other name of Rainfed type of farming ?

  1. Productive farming
  2. Protective farming
  3. Barani
  4. Zaid
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In comparison to 1950-51, which of the following categories has decreased the most in 2014-15?

  1. Forests
  2. Permanent pasture and grazing land
  3. Barren and unculturable wasteland
  4. Culturable wasteland
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In comparison to 1950-51, which one of the following categories has the highest difference of increase in 2014-15?

  1. Barren and unculturable wasteland
  2. Net area sown
  3. Area under non-agricultural uses
  4. Current fallow
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

What is the correct difference in net area sown between 1950-51 and 2014-15?

  1. 3·6% (of reporting area)
  2. 3·7% (of reporting area)
  3. 3·8% (of reporting area)
  4. 3·9% (of reporting area)
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a feature of dryland farming ?

  1. It is practised where the annual amount of rainfall is less than 75 cm
  2. Practised in Black soil areas
  3. Drought resistant crops are grown
  4. Measures are taken to preserve soil moisture
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Read the given resources and choose the correct option related to community resources: I. Village water bodies II. Village agriculture land III. Village residential land IV. Pasture land

  1. Only I and II are correct.
  2. Only II and III are correct.
  3. Only III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I and IV are correct.

Short answer (3)

Q15.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Describe the objectives of National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) in the development of Indian agriculture.

Q16.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three differences between irrigated and rainfed farming in India.

Q17.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the problem of low productivity of Indian agriculture.

Long answer (19)

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the problem of 'low productivity' of Indian agriculture. Analyse the role of 'National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture' to solve this problem.

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

"Generally land-use in a region is influenced by the nature of economic activities." Support the statement with suitable examples.

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Examine the agricultural development in India since independence.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the increase in agricultural output and improvement in technology since independence in India.

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the geographical requirements of cotton cultivation and its production in India.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

The intensive irrigation in the areas of successful 'green revolution' have both positive and negative impacts. Analyse the statement.

Q24.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Evaluate the statement: Agriculture is the most important primary activity in India.

Q25.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the importance of land resources.

Q26.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

(b) Distinguish between irrigated and rainfed agriculture in India with examples.

Q27.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain any five problems faced by the agricultural sector in India.

Q28.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Suggest any five measures to solve the main problems of Indian agriculture and explain them.

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Classify Indian farming practices on the basis of source of moisture and describe them.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Describe four characteristics of common property resources in India.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

(a) Mention four characteristics of common property resources in India.

Q32.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Define Common Property Resources. How do Common Property Resources help in providing livelihood to the landless and marginal farmers? Explain.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Land and ground water are used most in agriculture in India. Substantiate this statement with examples from Punjab and Haryana.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyze any five problems of Indian agriculture.

Q35.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyze any five utilities of common property resources in India.

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Support the statement with appropriate arguments.

Case-based (1)

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which is the state leading in the production of cotton ?

12Water Resources Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (6)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:

  1. Bhil − Jhabua district
  2. Ralegan Siddhi − Mumbai
  3. Dharavi − Meerut district
  4. Gaddi − Muzaffarnagar
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the main objective of 'Haryali Project' ?

  1. Water conservation for irrigation and fisheries
  2. Water conservation for industries
  3. Surface water availability for transport
  4. Surface water availability for recreation
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the following water conservation measures adopted in the Ralegan Siddhi village carefully and choose most appropriate option. I. Constructing percolation tanks II. Repairing the embankments III. Emphasising stall-feeding of animals IV. Formation of 'Old Mandals'

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q4.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct group of states utilizing their groundwater resource moderately.

  1. Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan
  2. Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Punjab
  3. Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
  4. Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
Q5.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: The groundwater utilization is very high in __________. If the present trend of groundwater utilization continues, it would be very difficult to meet the water needs.

  1. Punjab
  2. Odisha
  3. Kerala
  4. Chhattisgarh
Q6.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following rivers is highly polluted?

  1. Kosi
  2. Ravi
  3. Narmada
  4. Yamuna

Short answer (4)

Q7.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Define water quality. Explain the reasons of deteriorating surface water quality in India.

Q8.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three factors responsible for the depletion of water resources in India.

Q9.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain the main features of India's National Water Policy, 2002.

Q10.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three activities proposed under the Water Conservation Campaign in India.

Long answer (7)

Q11.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the necessity and methods of rainwater harvesting in India.

Q12.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the main features of India's national water policy.

Q13.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the main objectives of Jal Kranti Abhiyan in India.

Q14.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain any five methods to prevent water pollution in India.

Q15.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the importance of rainwater harvesting in watershed management in India.

Q16.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Explain with examples how watershed management and rainwater harvesting help in conserving water resources in India.

Q17.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Explain the statement with examples: Water is a critical natural resource in India.

13Mineral and Energy Resources Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (15)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following coal mining areas of India from south to north direction of their location and choose the correct option: I. Singareni II. Neyveli III. Jharia IV. Talchar

  1. II, I, III, IV
  2. II, I, IV, III
  3. I, II, IV, III
  4. I, II, III, IV
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option: Column-I (Mineral): a. Iron-ore b. Manganese c. Bauxite d. Copper Column-II (Major Mines): i. Katni ii. Bhilwara iii. Chandrapur iv. Sundargarh

  1. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
  2. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  4. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Read the information given in the box carefully and identify the mineral: It is a non-ferrous ore. Odisha is the largest producer state. It is used in manufacturing of aluminium.

  1. Copper
  2. Mica
  3. Bauxite
  4. Manganese
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option: Iron-ore (Sundargarh), Manganese (Chandrapur), Bauxite (Katni), Copper (Bhilwara)

  1. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
  2. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  4. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following oil refineries of Assam according to their location from the west to the east and choose the correct option. I. Guwahati II. Numaligarh III. Bongaigaon IV. Digboi

  1. I, III, II, IV
  2. I, III, IV, II
  3. III, I, IV, II
  4. III, I, II, IV
Q6.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following oil refineries of India from their north to south locations and choose the correct option. I. Mathura II. Bathinda III. Bina IV. Panipat

  1. II, IV, I, III
  2. II, IV, III, I
  3. IV, II, III, I
  4. IV, II, I, III
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option of group of states of iron ore reserves from high to low.

  1. Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
  2. Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh
  3. Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana
  4. Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following coal mines of India according to their location from north to south and choose the correct option. I. Singareni II. Neyveli III. Singrauli IV. Korba

  1. IV, I, III, II
  2. I, III, IV, II
  3. III, IV, I, II
  4. III, I, IV, II
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following states from the highest to the lowest order according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option. I. Odisha II. Gujarat III. Chhattisgarh IV. Madhya Pradesh

  1. III, II, I, IV
  2. IV, I, III, II
  3. I, II, III, IV
  4. III, IV, II, I
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following states in sequence (highest to lowest) according to their reserves of iron ore and choose the correct option. I. Jharkhand II. Karnataka III. Chhattisgarh IV. Odisha

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. II, III, IV, I
  3. IV, I, III, II
  4. I, III, IV, II
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Arrange the following states in sequence (highest to lowest) according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option. I. Chhattisgarh II. Gujarat III. Jharkhand IV. Odisha

  1. IV, III, II, I
  2. II, I, III, IV
  3. III, IV, I, II
  4. I, IV, II, III
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): There is an inverse relationship between quality and quantity of minerals. Reason (R): Good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q13.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the flow chart:

  1. Gold
  2. Bauxite
  3. Graphite
  4. Manganese
Q14.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the easternmost station of the trans-East-West pipeline in India?

  1. Digboi
  2. Silchar
  3. Guwahati
  4. Itanagar
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following countries is related to Ladakh?

  1. Malaysia
  2. Mexico
  3. India
  4. Brazil

Very short answer (3)

Q16.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Mention any four characteristics of the mineral belt in India.

Q17.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

(a) Mention any four characteristics of the mineral-based Western Crop-belt in India.

Q18.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Mention any four characteristics of the north-western semi-arid belt in India.

Short answer (8)

Q19.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Distinguish between metallic and non-metallic minerals with example.

Q20.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Why is petroleum known as liquid gold? Explain by giving three arguments.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Define the term mineral fuels. Explain the disadvantage of mineral fuels with reference to India.

Q22.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Mention the main characteristics of the mineral belt of South-Western region.

Q23.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Mention the main characteristics of the mineral belt of South-Western India.

Q24.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Copper is essential for the electrical industry. Examine this statement.

Q25.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Explain any three characteristics of non-conventional sources of energy.

Q26.CBSE 2023 · 3 marks

Petroleum energy is an indispensable source for the operation of transport and industries. Examine this statement.

Long answer (9)

Q27.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the significance of petroleum as major source of energy and describe its distribution in India.

Q28.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Non-conventional energy sources are equitably distributed in India. Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

Q29.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyze the relationship between the conservation of mineral resources and sustainable development in India.

Q30.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Nuclear energy has emerged as a commercial energy source in recent years. Examine this statement in the context of India with suitable arguments.

Q31.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

India is endowed with diverse kinds of mineral resources due to its varied geographical structure. Support this statement with appropriate arguments.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Suggest any five measures for conservation of mineral resources in India and explain them.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyse the relationship between the conservation of mineral resources and sustainable development in India.

Q34.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Evaluate the statement: For sustainable development, economic development needs coordination with environmental issues, particularly in the context of conservation of mineral resources.

Q35.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Most of the mineral-based industries in India are found in the Peninsular region of pre-Cambrian crystalline rocks. Examine this statement.

Case-based (3)

Q36.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which state are Bailadila iron-ore mines located ?

Q37.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which state is Mathura oil refinery located ?

Q38.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the oil refinery located in Bihar.

14Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (16)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

During which one of the following decades, 'Gaddi' was included in the Scheduled Tribe list in Chamba district, Himachal Pradesh?

  1. 1950s
  2. 1960s
  3. 1970s
  4. 1980s
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The concept of 'sustainable development' emerged in 1990's. Reason (R): General awareness about environmental issues originated during 1960's in the western world.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The main Indira Gandhi Canal terminates in which one of the following districts of Rajasthan?

  1. Bikaner
  2. Barmer
  3. Ganganagar
  4. Jaisalmer
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

If you were asked to prepare a 'hill area development programme', which of the following must be kept in mind? Choose the correct option: I. Establishing heavy industry II. Ecosystem III. National Highway construction IV. Topography

  1. I and III
  2. I and IV
  3. II and III
  4. II and IV
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The economic development of a region depends upon its resource base. Reason (R): Sometimes resource rich region remain backward.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
  4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The restoration of ecological balance is the main focus of drought prone area programme. Reason (R): Growing population pressure is forcing to utilize the marginal lands for agriculture.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
  4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
Q7.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

concept was given by which one of the following?

  1. Griffith Taylor
  2. Brundtland
  3. Thomas Malthus
  4. Walter Burley Griffin
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The concept was given by which one of the following?

  1. Griffith Taylor
  2. Brundtland
  3. Thomas Malthus
  4. Walter Burley Griffin
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly ?

  1. Hill Area Development Programme - Semi-arid and Arid tracts of India
  2. Drought Prone Area Programme - 15 Hilly Districts
  3. Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area - Ganganagar, Hanumangarh
  4. Integrated Tribal Development Project - Rajasthan and Gujarat
Q10.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Bharmaur Tribal region belongs to which of the following states?

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among scheduled tribes. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Jammu and Kashmir
Q11.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following tribal communities dominate in Bharmaur region?

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among scheduled tribes. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

  1. Bakkarwals
  2. Bhils
  3. Gonds
  4. Gaddis
Q12.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What is the major aim of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP)?

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among scheduled tribes. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

  1. Improving irrigation
  2. Improving sheep rearing
  3. Improving soils of the region
  4. Improving the quality of life of the Gaddis
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What was the main objective to construct the Indira Gandhi Canal?

Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 1963 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 553 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 1410 lakh ha. It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels. Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

  1. Providing water for irrigation in the command area
  2. Providing water for drinking purpose
  3. Providing water for afforestation
  4. Providing water for industries
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Bharmaur Tribal region belongs to which of the following states ?

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by Gaddis, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among Scheduled Tribes. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Jammu and Kashmir
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following tribal communities dominate in Bharmaur region ?

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by Gaddis, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among Scheduled Tribes. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

  1. Bakkarwals
  2. Bhils
  3. Gonds
  4. Gaddis
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What is the major aim of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP) ?

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by Gaddis, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among Scheduled Tribes. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

  1. Improving irrigation
  2. Improving sheep rearing
  3. Improving soils of the region
  4. Improving the quality of life of the Gaddis

Short answer (3)

Q17.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Rama has been given the responsibility of preparing a development programme for a hilly area. Explain any three points which should be kept in mind while preparing the programme.

Q18.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Evaluate the statement in Indian context.

Q19.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Misuse of any resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations. Explain this statement in the context of sustainable development with examples.

Long answer (9)

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the benefits of the Indira Gandhi Canal in its command area.

Q21.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Suggest the measures to achieve ecological sustainability in Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area.

Q22.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyze any five measures for establishing ecological balance in the Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area.

Q23.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Analyze any five positive effects of Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region.

Q24.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

To achieve sustainable development goal in the Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area requires major thrust upon the measures of environmental sustainability. Evaluate the statement.

Q25.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve livelihood and resource conservation. Evaluate this statement.

Q26.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Discuss the objectives of Drought Prone Area Development Programme.

Q27.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Analyse the results of Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur region.

Q28.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Indira Gandhi Nahr Sinchayee Scheme has transformed the ecology and economy of arid regions of Rajasthan. Analyse the statement.

Case-based (8)

Case study · CBSE 2023

Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 1963 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 553 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 1410 lakh ha. It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels. Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

Q29.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What was the main objective to construct of Indira Gandhi Canal?

  1. Proving water for irrigation in the command area
  2. Providing water for drinking purpose
  3. Providing water for afforestation
  4. Providing water for industries
Q30.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What is the major benefit of this Canal in the command area?

  1. Transformation of ecology and economy
  2. Environmental conditions slightly changed
  3. People had not settled permanently
  4. Crop production is still at lower level
Q31.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What is the negative impact of this Canal?

  1. Soils become fertile
  2. Water logging and salinity
  3. Multiple cropping system
  4. Command area becomes green

Case study · CBSE 2022

The social benefits derived from Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP) include tremendous increase in literacy rate, improvement in sex ratio and decline in child marriage. The female literacy rate in the region increased from 1·88 per cent in 1971 to 65 per cent in 2011. The difference between males and females in literacy level i.e., gender inequality, has also declined. Traditionally, the Gaddis had subsistence agricultural-cum-pastoral economy having emphasis on foodgrains and livestock production. But during the last three decades of twentieth century, the cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased in Bharmaur region. But the crop cultivation is still done with traditional technology. The declining importance of pastoralism in the economy of the region can be gauged from the fact that at present only about one-tenth of the total households practise transhumance. But the Gaddis are still very mobile as a sizeable section of them migrate to Kangra and surrounding areas during winter to earn their living from wage labour.

Q32.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Why is the importance of pastoralism declining in Bharmaur region?

Q33.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Mention any two Development priorities of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP).

Q34.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

(4.1) Mention any two Development Priorities of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP).

Q35.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Mention any two priorities of the Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP).

Q36.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

(4.3) Why is the importance of pastoralism declining in Bharmaur region?

15Transport and Communication Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (40)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following organisations regulate the air traffic of major airports of India?

  1. Airport Authority of India
  2. Indian Airport Commission
  3. Indian Air Control Board
  4. Airport Development Authority
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following inland waterway and its stretch is correctly matched?

  1. National Waterways No. 1 – Allahabad – Haldia
  2. National Waterways No. 3 – Sadiya – Dhubri
  3. National Waterways No. 2 – Kottapuram – Kollam
  4. National Waterways No. 5 – Kakinada – Puducherry
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following set of cities falling on the 'Golden Quadrilateral' are arranged in a clock-wise direction from Delhi?

  1. Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai
  2. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai
  3. Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata
  4. Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following cities serve as headquarter of two railway zones?

  1. Kolkata
  2. Chennai
  3. Jaipur
  4. Bilaspur
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

'Kottapuram to Kollam' is the stretch of which one of the following National Waterways ?

  1. National Waterway 1
  2. National Waterway 2
  3. National Waterway 3
  4. National Waterway 4
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following organisations constructed the Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur gas pipeline ?

  1. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation
  2. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
  3. Oil Authority of India Limited
  4. Gas Authority of India Limited
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following set of places are connected by the 'Atal Tunnel'?

  1. Shimla and Manikaran
  2. Shimla and Lahaul-Spiti
  3. Manali and Lahaul-Spiti
  4. Manali and Manikaran
Q8.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following institutions constructed the 'Golden Quadrilateral Project' ?

  1. National Highways Authority of India
  2. State Highway Authority
  3. Central Public Works Department
  4. Border Roads Organisation
Q9.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The 'North-South Corridor' connects which of the following set of cities ?

  1. Delhi to Chennai
  2. Srinagar to Kanniyakumari
  3. Srinagar to Thiruvananthapuram
  4. Delhi to Mangaluru
Q10.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The 'East-West Corridor' connects which of the following set of cities?

  1. Kandla to Silchar
  2. Kandla to Shillong
  3. Porbandar to Shillong
  4. Porbandar to Silchar
Q11.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the prime objective of 'Border Roads Organisation'?

  1. Strengthening urban roads
  2. Strengthening defence preparedness
  3. Strengthening rural roads
  4. Strengthening economic preparedness
Q12.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

After independence ________ was introduced to improve the condition of roads in India.

  1. ten-year road plan
  2. twenty-year road plan
  3. thirty-year road plan
  4. forty-year road plan
Q13.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair: (Railway Zone) - (Headquarter)

  1. East Central - Bhubaneswar
  2. West Central - Mumbai
  3. North Central - Gorakhpur
  4. South Central - Secunderabad
Q14.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following set of states are the partners in 'Konkan Railway' ?

  1. Goa, Karnataka and Kerala
  2. Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
  3. Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka
  4. Gujarat, Maharashtra and Goa
Q15.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the appropriate option: Column I (Waterways) - a. National Waterway No. 1, b. National Waterway No. 2, c. National Waterway No. 3, d. National Waterway No. 4; Column II (Stretch) - i. Godavari-Krishna Rivers with Kakinada, ii. Prayagraj − Haldia, iii. Kottapuram − Kollam, iv. Sadiya − Dhubri

  1. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  2. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
  3. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
  4. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Q16.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

At present, the Grand Trunk Road extends between which of the following two cities ?

  1. Amritsar and Bhubaneswar
  2. Amritsar and Kolkata
  3. Pathankot and Kolkata
  4. Pathankot and Bhubaneswar
Q17.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following pair of cities are terminal stations of East-West Corridor in India?

  1. Imphal and Porbandar
  2. Imphal and Vadodara
  3. Silchar and Vadodara
  4. Silchar and Porbandar
Q18.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the appropriate option: Column I (Railway Zone) - a. Northern, b. Southern, c. Eastern, d. Western; Column II (Headquarter) - i. Chennai, ii. Mumbai, iii. New Delhi, iv. Kolkata

  1. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  2. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
  3. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  4. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Q19.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the appropriate option: Column I (Railway Zone): a. North Eastern, b. South Eastern, c. North Western, d. South Western. Column II (Headquarter): i. Kolkata, ii. Hubli, iii. Gorakhpur, iv. Jaipur.

  1. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  2. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  3. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  4. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
Q20.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which of the following pair of cities are terminal stations of North-South Corridor in India?

  1. Srinagar and Kanniyakumari
  2. Srinagar and Rameshwaram
  3. Dehradun and Rameshwaram
  4. Dehradun and Kanniyakumari
Q21.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following states is not a partner of 'Konkan Railway'?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Goa
  3. Karnataka
  4. Kerala
Q22.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The objective of Border Roads Organisation is:

  1. To construct roads in moderately elevated plateau areas.
  2. To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
  3. To construct roads in low lying plain areas.
  4. To construct roads in coastal areas for linking ports.
Q23.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The objective of state highways is:

  1. For inter-state transport operations.
  2. For connecting important sea ports and airports.
  3. To connect state capitals with district headquarters.
  4. To connect the capitals of different states.
Q24.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following plan was introduced to improve the conditions of roads in India?

  1. Nagpur Plan
  2. Golden Quadrilateral Plan
  3. North-South Corridor Plan
  4. Twenty-Year Road Plan
Q25.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The road between Chandigarh and Manali was constructed by which of the following?

  1. Border Roads Organisation
  2. National Highways Authority of India
  3. Central Public Works Department
  4. State Public Works Department
Q26.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The road between Chandigarh-Manali was constructed by which of the following?

  1. Border Roads Organisation
  2. National Highways Authority of India
  3. Central Public Works Department
  4. State Public Works Department
Q27.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the biggest government undertaking in the country ?

  1. Indian Railways
  2. National Highways Authority of India
  3. Border Roads Organization
  4. All India Radio
Q28.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Railway Zones): 1. North Eastern 2. West Central 3. East Central 4. South Central Column II (Headquarters): (i) Jabalpur (ii) Hajipur (iii) Secunderabad (iv) Gorakhpur

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
Q29.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

The two correct terminal points of North-South Corridor of India are which of the following?

  1. Srinagar and Kanyakumari
  2. Delhi and Kanyakumari
  3. Amritsar and Chennai
  4. Srinagar and Chennai
Q30.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Choose the correct option regarding the stretch of National Waterways No. 1 :

  1. Allahabad/Prayagraj - Haldia
  2. Sadiya - Dhubri
  3. Kottapuram - Kollam
  4. Kakinada - Puducherry
Q31.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Mark (A) on the diagram is related to which of the following places?

  1. Kakinada
  2. Dhubri
  3. Kottapuram
  4. Sadiya
Q32.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Mark (B) on the diagram is related to which of the following places?

  1. Kollam
  2. Haldia
  3. Dibrugarh
  4. Vallamkali
Q33.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the programmes related to the proposed Bharatmala umbrella scheme carefully and choose the correct option: I. Backward areas, religious and tourist places connectivity programme II. To interconnect the four metropolitan cities of the country III. To develop State roads in adjoining coastal areas IV. To connect non-major ports in coastal states

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q34.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Railway Zones) - Column II (Headquarters) 1. North Eastern - (i) Jabalpur 2. West Central - (ii) Hajipur 3. East Central - (iii) Secunderabad 4. South Central - (iv) Gorakhpur

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
Q35.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following are the correct two terminal places of North-South Corridor?

  1. Srinagar and Kanyakumari
  2. Delhi and Kanyakumari
  3. Amritsar and Chennai
  4. Srinagar and Chennai
Q36.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which among the following is the westernmost station of East-West corridor?

  1. Kolkata
  2. Guwahati
  3. Porbandar
  4. Mumbai
Q37.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (Railway zone) - i. North Central, ii. East Central, iii. West Central, iv. South Central; Column II (Headquarter) - 1. Secunderabad, 2. Allahabad/Prayagraj, 3. Hajipur, 4. Jabalpur

  1. i→1, ii→2, iii→3, iv→4
  2. i→4, ii→3, iii→2, iv→1
  3. i→3, ii→4, iii→1, iv→2
  4. i→2, ii→3, iii→4, iv→1
Q38.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following features is not true regarding NHAI?

  1. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.
  2. It is responsible for constructing and maintaining National Highways.
  3. It also constructs village link roads.
  4. NHAI was operationalized in 1995.
Q39.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the easternmost station of the East-West corridor ?

  1. Guwahati
  2. Bhopal
  3. Kolkata
  4. Silchar
Q40.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not true regarding the development of border roads ?

  1. Integration of people of remote areas with major cities
  2. Strengthening defence preparedness
  3. Helps in transporting goods to border villages
  4. Help in developing large scale industries

Very short answer (3)

Q41.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Explain any two features of National Waterway Number-1.

Q42.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Why has the Indian Railways launched an extensive programme to convert metre and narrow gauges to broad gauge? Explain.

Q43.CBSE 2022 · 2 marks

Konkan Railways is considered an arterial line of commerce. Justify the statement.

Short answer (5)

Q44.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the role of oil and gas pipelines in the economic development of the country.

Q45.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the need to extend the network of national highways in India.

Q46.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the role of 'border roads' in the defence of the nation.

Q47.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the main characteristics of pipeline transport system in India.

Q48.CBSE 2022 · 3 marks

Explain the functions of the National Highway Authority of India.

Long answer (8)

Q49.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Metro rail has revolutionised the urban transport system in India. Support the statement with examples.

Q50.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

How does personal communication system enable the user to establish direct contact with the world of knowledge and information? Analyse.

Q51.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Classify Indian roads on the basis of construction and maintenance and explain them.

Q52.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the importance of rail transport in India.

Q53.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Support the statement: Indian Railways serve the economic needs of the country as a lifeline.

Q54.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Indian Railway is one of the longest railway networks in the world. Support the statement.

Q55.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Indian railway network is one of the longest railway networks in the world. Examine the importance of the statement.

Q56.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

The development of science and technology in India has made significant contributions to bringing a revolution in the field of communication. Examine this statement.

Case-based (1)

Q57.CBSE 2022 · 1 mark

Name the western terminal of East-West Corridor.

16International Trade Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (17)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following contributes maximum in India's export?

  1. Agriculture and allied products
  2. Ores and minerals
  3. Manufactured goods
  4. Mineral fuels and lubricants
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following ports is situated at 'Zuari Estuary'?

  1. New Mangalore
  2. Kochchi
  3. Marmagao
  4. Ennore
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Between 2010 − 11 and 2016 − 17, which one of the following regions had the lowest difference in imports ? Direction of India's Import Trade (in ₹ crore): Europe (323857 to 403972), Africa (118612 to 193327), North America (100602 to 195332), Latin America (64576 to 115762), Asia and ASEAN (1029881 to 1544520)

  1. Europe
  2. Africa
  3. North America
  4. Latin America
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following shows the correct increase in imports with Africa between 2010 − 11 and 2016 − 17 ?

  1. ₹ 74,715 crore
  2. ₹ 74,315 crore
  3. ₹ 74,115 crore
  4. ₹ 74,015 crore
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Arrange the following regions of the world from the lowest to the highest order on the bases of imports during 2016 − 17 and choose the correct option: I. Europe II. Africa III. North America IV. Latin America

  1. III, I, IV, II
  2. III, I, II, IV
  3. IV, II, III, I
  4. IV, II, I, III
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Between 2010-11 and 2016-17, which one of the following regions had the lowest difference in imports? Direction of India's Import Trade (in ₹ crore): Europe (2010-11: 323857, 2016-17: 403972), Africa (2010-11: 118612, 2016-17: 193327), North America (2010-11: 100602, 2016-17: 195332), Latin America (2010-11: 64576, 2016-17: 115762), Asia and ASEAN (2010-11: 1029881, 2016-17: 1544520)

  1. Europe
  2. Africa
  3. North America
  4. Latin America
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Between 2010-11 and 2016-17, which one of the following regions had the lowest difference in imports?

  1. Europe
  2. Africa
  3. North America
  4. Latin America
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): The significance of Kolkata sea port has declined in the recent times. Reason (R): Kolkata port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Q9.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which of the following sea ports in India has been developed specially to import petroleum and fertilizers?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Marmagao
  3. Kandla
  4. Kochchi
Q10.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

In 2016-17, arrange the following goods/items manufactured by India in descending order of their percentages and choose the correct option: I. Crude and petroleum products II. Manufactured goods III. Agriculture and allied products IV. Ore and minerals

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. II, I, IV, III
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. II, III, I, IV
Q11.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the goods/commodities exported by India in 2016-17 in descending order of their percentages and choose the correct option: I. Crude and petroleum products II. Manufactured goods III. Agriculture and allied products IV. Ore and minerals

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. II, I, IV, III
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. II, III, I, IV
Q12.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Arrange the following items exported by India during 2016-17 in descending order of their percentages and choose the correct option: I. Crude and petroleum products II. Manufactured goods III. Agriculture and allied products IV. Ore and minerals

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. II, I, IV, III
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. II, III, I, IV
Q13.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following seaports is located on Mahanadi delta?

  1. Haldia
  2. Ennore
  3. Paradwip
  4. Vishakhapatnam
Q14.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Why has Kolkata port minimised its significance?

  1. It has a vast hinterland
  2. Accumulation of silt in Hugli river
  3. Diversion of exports to other ports
  4. Passenger traffic is very low
Q15.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

The port designed to receive petroleum, petroleum products and fertilizers is:

  1. New Mangaluru
  2. Haldia
  3. Kandla
  4. Tuticorin
Q16.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

India's foreign trade is mainly carried through which of the following routes?

  1. Land and air routes
  2. Land and sea routes
  3. Air and sea routes
  4. Only sea routes
Q17.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

India's foreign trade is mainly conducted through which routes?

  1. Land and air routes
  2. Land and sea routes
  3. Air and sea routes
  4. Only sea routes

Short answer (4)

Q18.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the main reasons for the increase in imports of petroleum in India.

Q19.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

Explain the increasing pattern of exports of manufactured goods in India.

Q20.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

"Indian sea ports continued to grow after independence." Support the statement with examples.

Q21.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Explain the main characteristics of Kolkata sea port and its hinterland.

Long answer (7)

Q22.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the importance of Indian seaports in the development of international trade.

Q23.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the changes in India's composition of foreign trade.

Q24.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the role of air transport in 'international trade' of India.

Q25.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Analyse the changing pattern of export composition in India between 2009 to 2017.

Q26.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the characteristics of Mumbai sea port.

Q27.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Explain the Indian sea ports as gateways of international trade.

Q28.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Why are sea ports known as gateways of international trade in India? Explain.

Case-based (3)

Case study · CBSE 2023

Extent of gap between Exports and Imports in 2012-13 to 2016-17

Q29.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(18.1) In which year was the gap between imports and exports the maximum ?

Case study · CBSE 2023

Extent of gap between Exports and Imports in 2012-13 to 2016-17. Source: Economic Survey, 2016-17

Q30.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

(18.1) In which year was the gap between imports and exports the maximum?

Case study · CBSE 2023

Extent of gap between Exports and Imports in India 2012-13 to 2016-17. Source: Economic Survey, 2016-17

Q31.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

In which year was the gap between imports and exports the maximum ?

17Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems Notes & MCQs →

Multiple choice and assertion-reason (28)

Q1.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following has classified 'wastelands' in India?

  1. Indian Space Research Organisation
  2. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing
  3. Regional Remote Sensing Centres
  4. National Remote Sensing Centre
Q2.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a natural process of land degradation ?

  1. Mining activities
  2. Gully erosion
  3. Industrial waste
  4. Shifting cultivation
Q3.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The Watershed Management Programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh was funded by which one of the following ministries ?

  1. Ministry of Agriculture
  2. Ministry of Urban Development
  3. Ministry of Human Development
  4. Ministry of Finance
Q4.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in the irrigated area of desert ?

  1. Soil salinity
  2. Soil erosion
  3. Ravine erosion
  4. Pastures degradation
Q5.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The loudness of the sound is measured in the unit known as:

  1. Millimeter
  2. Centimeter
  3. Decimal
  4. Decibel
Q6.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

The 'Swachh Bharat Mission' is part of which one of the following ?

  1. Urban Land Development Mission
  2. Urban Renewal Mission
  3. Urban Housing Development Drive
  4. Urban Plantation Drive
Q7.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not applicable to 'Namami Gange Programme'?

  1. Developing sewerage treatment system in towns
  2. Development of river front
  3. Avoiding industrial development
  4. Cleaning of the river surface
Q8.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Read the following factors of population migration in India from rural to urban areas carefully and choose the correct option of push factors. I. Unemployment II. Job opportunities III. Economic backwardness IV. Lack of medical facilities

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
Q9.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the correct set of water-borne diseases.

  1. Asthma, Headache and Diarrhoea
  2. Hepatitis, Asthma and Blood pressure
  3. Intestinal worms, Headache and Blood pressure
  4. Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
Q10.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Identify the practical measure from the following to control air pollution in the metropolitan cities in India. Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Public Transport with Ring Railway
  2. Carpooling with Metro Rail
  3. Metro Rail with CNG Buses
  4. Ring Railway with CNG Buses
Q11.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability, but also by deterioration of land. In the context of this statement read the following reasons carefully and choose the correct option. I. Soil erosion and waterlogging. II. Salinisation and alkalinisation of soil. III. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping. IV. Decline in land productivity.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q12.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited land but also due to various other reasons. In the context of this statement read the following reasons carefully and choose the correct option. I. Soil erosion and waterlogging. II. Salinisation and alkalinisation of soil. III. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping. IV. Decline in land productivity.

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
Q13.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the main polluter of Yamuna water in Delhi?

  1. Flood water spreading
  2. Dumping of domestic waste
  3. Use of pesticides
  4. Use of fertilizers
Q14.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

Choose an objective of the Namami Gange Programme from the following:

  1. To monitor industrial effluents
  2. To develop the network of canals
  3. To construct dams for water management
  4. To restrict the use of water for irrigation
Q15.CBSE 2025 · 1 mark

The successful implementation of watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh was funded by which one of the following?

  1. Non-Governmental Organisation
  2. Jhabua District Administration
  3. Madhya Pradesh Government
  4. Central Government
Q16.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following diseases is caused by water pollution ?

  1. Hepatitis
  2. Asthma
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Deafness
Q17.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Swach Bharat Mission has been launched by which one of the following?

  1. Government of Madhya Pradesh
  2. Government of India
  3. Non Governmental Organisation
  4. World Health Organisation
Q18.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not the objective of Namami Gange Programme ?

  1. Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns
  2. Monitoring of industrial effluents
  3. Afforestation along the banks of the river
  4. To divert the flow of the river from the cities
Q19.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the given statement carefully and answer the question that follows : Most of the industrial waste is thrown into water or lakes. Which among the following group of industries are the major source of water pollution ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Leather, pulp and paper
  2. Iron, copper and sugar
  3. Sugar, petrochemical and fertilizer
  4. Cotton textile, chemical and power plant
Q20.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is an example of solid waste?

  1. Kitchen discarded items
  2. Polythene bags
  3. Plant leaves and branches
  4. Old newspapers
Q21.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Read the following sources of land pollution carefully and choose the correct option: I. Improper human activities II. Untreated industrial waste III. Practice of primitive subsistence agriculture IV. Use of pesticides and fertilizers

  1. Only I, II and III are correct
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct
Q22.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the demographic consequence of rural-urban migration?

Ramesh has been working in contract as a welder on a construction site in Talcher (coal region of Odisha) for the last two years. He moved with the contractor to various places like Surat, Mumbai, Gandhi Nagar, Bharuch, Jamnagar and so on. He remits ₹20,000 per year to his father in his native village. The remittances have been mainly used for daily consumption, healthcare, schooling of children, etc. Part of the money is also used in agriculture, purchasing of land and building of houses, etc. The standard of living of Ramesh's family has improved significantly. Fifteen years ago, the situation was not the same. The family was passing through very tough times. Three of his brothers and their families had to survive on three acres of land. The family was highly in debt. Ramesh had to discontinue his studies after ninth standard. He was further hard pressed when he got married. Simultaneously, he was also impressed by some successful out-migrants of his village who had been working in Ludhiana and supporting their families in the village by sending money and some consumer goods. Thus, due to abject poverty in the family and perceived job promises at Ludhiana, he made a move to Punjab with his friend. He worked there in a woolen factory for six months at the rate of only ₹20 per day in 1988. Apart from the crisis of managing his personal expenditure from this meagre income, he was also facing difficulty in assimilation to the new culture and environment. Then he decided to change his place of work from Ludhiana to Surat under the guidance of his friend. He learnt the skills of welding in Surat and after that he has been moving to different places with the same contractor. Though the economic condition of Ramesh's family has improved, his migration has the downside of separation of his near and dear ones. He cannot shift them with him, as the job is temporary and transferable.

  1. Pressure on infrastructure at the place of destination
  2. Shortage of labour at the place of origin
  3. Imbalance in age and sex
  4. Intermixing of culture at the place of destination
Q23.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the meaning of remittance ?

Ramesh has been working in contract as a welder on a construction site in Talcher (coal region of Odisha) for the last two years. He moved with the contractor to various places like Surat, Mumbai, Gandhi Nagar, Bharuch, Jamnagar and so on. He remits ₹20,000 per year to his father in his native village. The remittances have been mainly used for daily consumption, healthcare, schooling of children, etc. Part of the money is also used in agriculture, purchasing of land and building of houses, etc. The standard of living of Ramesh's family has improved significantly. Fifteen years ago, the situation was not the same. The family was passing through very tough times. Three of his brothers and their families had to survive on three acres of land. The family was highly in debt. Ramesh had to discontinue his studies after ninth standard. He was further hard pressed when he got married. Simultaneously, he was also impressed by some successful out-migrants of his village who had been working in Ludhiana and supporting their families in the village by sending money and some consumer goods. Thus, due to abject poverty in the family and perceived job promises at Ludhiana, he made a move to Punjab with his friend. He worked there in a woolen factory for six months at the rate of only ₹20 per day in 1988. Apart from the crisis of managing his personal expenditure from this meagre income, he was also facing difficulty in assimilation to the new culture and environment. Then he decided to change his place of work from Ludhiana to Surat under the guidance of his friend. He learnt the skills of welding in Surat and after that he has been moving to different places with the same contractor. Though the economic condition of Ramesh's family has improved, the job entails separation of his near and dear ones. He cannot shift them with him, as the job is temporary and transferable.

  1. Money sent by migrants
  2. Money earned by migrants
  3. Money spent by migrants
  4. Loan taken by migrants
Q24.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

The main cause of rural-urban migration in India is:

Ramesh has been working in contract as a welder on a construction site in Talcher (coal region of Odisha) for the last two years. He moved with the contractor to various places like Surat, Mumbai, Gandhi Nagar, Bharuch, Jamnagar and so on. He remits ₹20,000 per year to his father in his native village. The remittances have been mainly used for daily consumption, healthcare, schooling of children, etc. Part of the money is also used in agriculture, purchasing of land and building of houses, etc. The standard of living of Ramesh's family has improved significantly. Fifteen years ago, the situation was not the same. The family was passing through very tough times. Three of his brothers and their families had to survive on three acres of land. The family was highly in debt. Ramesh had to discontinue his studies after ninth standard. He was further hard pressed when he got married. Simultaneously, he was also impressed by some successful out-migrants of his village who had been working in Ludhiana and supporting their families in the village by sending money and some consumer goods. Thus, due to abject poverty in the family and perceived job promises at Ludhiana, he made a move to Punjab with his friend. He worked there in a woolen factory for six months at the rate of only ₹20 per day in 1988. Apart from the crisis of managing his personal expenditure from this meagre income, he was also facing difficulty in assimilation to the new culture and environment. Then he decided to change his place of work from Ludhiana to Surat under the guidance of his friend. He learnt the skills of welding in Surat and after that he has been moving to different places with the same contractor. Though the economic condition of Ramesh's family has improved, the job entails separation of his near and dear ones. He cannot shift them with him, as the job is temporary and transferable.

  1. Education
  2. Employment
  3. Health
  4. Tourism
Q25.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the cause of acid rain?

  1. Land pollution
  2. Water pollution
  3. Air pollution
  4. Noise pollution
Q26.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a major polluting industry?

  1. Food processing industry
  2. Cottage industry
  3. Chemical industry
  4. Foot loose industry
Q27.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not the cause of land pollution?

  1. Disposal of untreated industrial waste
  2. Use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers
  3. Improper human activities
  4. Organic farming
Q28.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a cause of noise pollution?

  1. Aircraft
  2. Industry
  3. Automobile
  4. Bicycle

Short answer (6)

Q29.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Suggest the measures to overcome the problem of water pollution in India.

Q30.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Suggest the measures to overcome the problem of air pollution in India.

Q31.CBSE 2025 · 3 marks

Suggest the measures to overcome the problem of noise pollution in India.

Q32.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

India experiences high flow of population from rural areas towards urban areas. Explain this statement.

Q33.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain any three problems of slums in India.

Q34.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain any three measures to solve the problem of urban waste disposal in India.

Long answer (14)

Q35.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Why is urban waste disposal becoming a serious problem in India ? Suggest measures to solve this problem.

Q36.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

''Human-made processes are more responsible than natural processes for increase in wasteland.'' Support the statement and suggest measures to reduce this problem.

Q37.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the causes of air pollution and suggest any three measures to overcome it.

Q38.CBSE 2026 · 5 marks

Explain the main causes of air pollution in India. Suggest measures to solve the problem.

Q39.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain the causes and consequences of rural to urban migration.

Q40.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Evaluate the impact of urban waste disposal problem and suggest any two measures to overcome it.

Q41.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Explain with examples how industrial expansion has led to degradation of the quality of water.

Q42.CBSE 2025 · 5 marks

Suggest any five measures to solve the problem of air pollution in India.

Q43.CBSE 2024 · 5 marks

Suggest any five measures for prevention of water pollution in India and explain them.

Q44.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Urban slum congestion has become a grave problem in India. Justify this statement with examples.

Q45.CBSE 2023 · 5 marks

Slum settlements are residential areas with severe health and socio-environmental problems. Examine this statement.

Q46.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

How is urban slum settlement a serious problem in India? Suggest measures to solve this problem.

Q47.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

How is urban destitution in India a serious problem? Suggest measures to solve this problem.

Q48.CBSE 2022 · 5 marks

Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the quality of water considerably. Analyse the statement.

Case-based (15)

Case study · CBSE 2026

Water Pollution: Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc. Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes. Consequently, poisonous elements reach the reservoirs, rivers and other water bodies, which destroy the bio-system of these waters. Major water polluting industries are leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals.

Q49.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Explain how industries are the major contributor of water pollution in India.

Case study · CBSE 2026

Water Pollution: Water pollution is a source of various water-borne diseases. The diseases commonly caused due to contaminated water are diarrhoea, intestinal worms, hepatitis, etc. The World Health Organization shows that about one-fourth of the communicable diseases in India are water-borne. Though river pollution is common to all rivers, yet pollution of the river Ganga flowing through one of the most populous regions of India has caused great concerns among all. To improve the condition of the river, National Mission for Clean Ganga was initiated. The Namami Gange Programme has been launched for the same.

Q50.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Describe the main cause of water pollution.

Case study · CBSE 2026

Water Pollution: Various types of chemicals used in modern agriculture such as inorganic fertilisers, pesticides and herbicides are pollution generating components. These chemicals are washed down to rivers, lakes and tanks. These chemicals also infiltrate the soil to reach the ground water. Fertiliser induces an increase in the nitrate content of surface waters. Manufacturing and improper domestic waste disposal also cause water pollution in India.

Q51.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

Explain the role of agricultural practices in water pollution.

Q52.CBSE 2026 · 3 marks

(19.1) Explain the role of agricultural practices in water pollution.

Q53.CBSE 2026 · 1 mark

(18.1) Explain the role of agricultural practices in water pollution.

Case study · CBSE 2024

Dharavi There is only one main road that traverses Dharavi, which has been reduced to less than half of that for most of its length. Some of the side alleys and lanes are so narrow that not even a bicycle can pass. The whole neighbourhood consists of temporary buildings, two or three storeyed high with rusty iron stairways to the upper part, where a single room is rented by a whole family, sometimes accommodating 10-12 people; it is a kind of tropical version of the industrial dwelling of early industrial Britain. But Dharavi is a keeper of more sombre secrets than the revulsion it inspires in the rich; a revulsion, moreover, that is, in direct proportion to the role it serves in the creation of the wealth of Bombay. In this place of shadowless, treeless sunlight, uncollected garbage, stagnant pools of foul water, where the only creatures are the shining black crows and long grey rats, some of the most beautiful, valuable and useful articles in India are made. From Dharavi come delicate ceramics and pottery, exquisite embroidery and zari work, sophisticated leather goods, high-fashion garments, finely-wrought metalwork, delicate jewellery settings, wood carvings and furniture that would find its way into the houses, both in India and abroad.

Q54.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Describe the physical condition of Dharavi.

Q55.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

(19.1) Describe the physical condition of Dharavi.

Q56.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

Explain the main objective of Swachh Bharat Mission in the context of Dharavi.

Case study · CBSE 2024

Land Degradation: The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land. Soil erosion, waterlogging, salinisation and alkalinisation of land lead to land degradation. What happens if land is consistently used without managing its fertility? Land is degraded and productivity declines. Land degradation is generally understood either as a temporary or a permanent decline in productive capacity of the land. Though all degraded land may not be wasteland, but unchecked process of degradation may lead to the conversion to wasteland. There are two processes that induce land degradation. These are natural and created by human beings. National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has classified wastelands by using remote sensing techniques and it is possible to categorise these wastelands according to the processes that have created them. There are a few types of wastelands such as gullied/ravinous land, desertic or coastal sands, barren rocky areas, steep sloping land, and glacial areas, which are primarily caused by natural agents. There are other types of degraded lands such as waterlogged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity and land with or without scrub, which have largely been caused by natural as well as human factors. There are some other types of wastelands such as degraded shifting cultivation area, degraded land under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures, and mining and industrial wastelands, that are caused by human action.

Q57.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Explain the meaning of land degradation.

Q58.CBSE 2024 · 3 marks

Clarify the meaning of land degradation.

Q59.CBSE 2024 · 1 mark

(19.1) Clarify the meaning of land degradation.

Case study · CBSE 2023

Daurala near Meerut presents a role model to restore the ecology and safeguard human health. A Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGOs conducted a door-to-door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology and a 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers. Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoon. 1000 trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.

Q60.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What is meant by water pollution?

Q61.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

Explain the role of industrialists in checking the deteriorating ecology.

Case study · CBSE 2023

A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard Human Health in Daurala. Ecological restoration and human health safeguard took place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of three years when a Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGOs conducted a door-to-door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organization, rural community and public representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology, and a 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers. Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoon. 1000 trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.

Q62.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What is meant by water pollution?

Case study · CBSE 2023

A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard Human Health in Daurala. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of three years when a Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGOs conducted a door-to-door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organizations, civil society and public representatives came together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating condition. The capacity of the overhead tank in the village was enhanced and a 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers. Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoon. 1000 trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.

Q63.CBSE 2023 · 1 mark

What is meant by water pollution?

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