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Q1. In Miller-Urey's 1953 experiment, which compound was NOT present in the early Earth's simulated atmosphere inside the flask?
Answer: C — Early Earth had a reducing atmosphere lacking free oxygen; Miller-Urey used only CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, and H₂ to simulate early conditions, proving organic molecules could form abiotically.
Q2. Which statement best explains why Darwin's theory of natural selection was revolutionary in the 19th century?
Answer: B — Darwin's theory explained how diversity arose through gradual change, variation, and differential reproductive success—challenging the special creation theory's timescale and mechanism.
Q3. Homologous organs in mammals are those that:
Answer: B — Homologous organs (bat wing, human arm, horse leg) share common skeletal elements but diverged in form and function, proving common descent and adaptation to different lifestyles.
Q4. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1, if the frequency of allele 'A' (p) is 0.6, what is the frequency of heterozygotes (Aa) in the population?
Answer: B — Heterozygotes are represented by 2pq; if p = 0.6, then q = 0.4, so 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48.
Q5. Directional natural selection is most clearly demonstrated by the case of:
Answer: A — Dark moths had higher survival in sooty environments (directional selection), while stabilising selects middle values and disruptive selects extremes; answer B and C show other selection types.
Q6. Which piece of evidence for evolution directly shows that life forms alive today share common ancestors with extinct organisms?
Answer: C — Fossils are actual remains of extinct organisms preserved in rock layers, showing direct evidence of past life forms and gradual transformation through time periods.
Q7. Which condition would NOT violate the Hardy-Weinberg principle and would result in no evolutionary change?
Answer: A — Hardy-Weinberg requires no mutations, selection, migration, or drift plus random mating; any violation of these conditions causes allele frequency change, leading to evolution.
Q8. Read the following statements: Assertion (A): Fitness in evolutionary biology refers to an organism's physical strength and ability to fight competitors. Reason (R): Natural selection favours traits that increase reproductive success and passing of alleles to offspring. Which is correct?
Answer: C — Fitness is reproductive output (number of viable fertile offspring), not physical strength; the misconception in A is a classic Class 12 exam trap.
Q9. Which of the following observations would provide the STRONGEST evidence that two mammal species share a recent common ancestor?
Answer: B — Homologous bone structures, embryological similarity, and genetic similarity (high DNA match) all indicate common ancestry; sympatry and diet are due to convergence or competition, not ancestry.
Q10. If a population of insects experiences heavy insecticide spraying that kills 90% of light-coloured insects but only 10% of dark-coloured insects, and the population size remains stable over generations, which type of natural selection is occurring?
Answer: C — Selective pressure (insecticide) consistently favours one extreme (dark colour), shifting allele frequencies in one direction—the definition of directional selection.
What is the Oparin-Haldane theory?
First life arose from non-living organic molecules (RNA, proteins) through chemical evolution under early Earth's reducing atmosphere with high temperature, lightning, and volcanic activity.
Why did Miller-Urey's 1953 experiment matter for evolution?
It demonstrated that amino acids (life's building blocks) could form spontaneously from inorganic molecules (CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, H₂) under conditions resembling early Earth, supporting chemical evolution.
Define natural selection in Darwin's terms.
Organisms with heritable traits better suited to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully, passing those advantageous traits to offspring, causing population change over time.
What is the difference between homologous and analogous organs?
Homologous organs have the same evolutionary origin and bone structure but different functions (bat wing, human arm); analogous organs have different origins but similar functions (bird and butterfly wings).
What does the Hardy-Weinberg equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1 predict?
Allele frequencies in a population remain constant generation to generation if there is no mutation, selection, migration, or genetic drift, meaning no evolution occurs.
Name three types of natural selection.
Directional selection (one extreme trait favoured), stabilising selection (middle trait favoured, extremes eliminated), and disruptive selection (both extreme traits favoured, middle eliminated).
What embryological evidence supports common ancestry?
Embryos of fish, reptiles, and mammals look nearly identical in early stages and develop similarly, showing they share a common ancestor despite later divergence into different forms.
How did the fossil record help Darwin?
Fossils showed that extinct life forms existed in the past, species changed gradually over geological time, and Earth must be billions of years old, not 4000 years.
What does 'fitness' mean in evolutionary biology?
Fitness refers only to reproductive success—how many viable, fertile offspring an organism produces—not physical strength or intelligence.
Why is the ozone layer formation important in Earth's early history?
The ozone layer blocked UV radiation from the sun, allowing life to move from water to land by protecting cells from UV damage that would kill unprotected organisms.
Define natural selection. How does it lead to evolution of a population? [2 marks]
State: heritable variation exists in population; environment selects organisms better suited to survive; they reproduce more, passing advantageous traits to offspring; allele frequencies change over generations = evolution. Include one example like dark peppered moths.
Explain the Oparin-Haldane theory with reference to Miller-Urey's experiment. What did this experiment prove about the origin of life? [5 marks]
Explain: early Earth had reducing atmosphere (CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, H₂), high temperature, lightning, volcanic activity → these conditions allowed chemical evolution of organic molecules. Miller-Urey replicated these conditions in lab (flask, electric discharge, 800°C) and produced amino acids, proving that life's building blocks could form non-biologically from inorganic matter, supporting the idea that life did not require divine creation but arose from chemistry. Mention that such compounds were also found in meteorites, confirming the process occurs in space.
Using the Hardy-Weinberg principle and the concept of natural selection, explain how and why allele frequencies change in a real population over time. Give an example of how one factor violates Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and leads to evolution. [6 marks]
State Hardy-Weinberg equation (p² + 2pq + q² = 1) and explain it predicts constant allele frequencies if no forces act. List five violations: mutation (introduces new alleles), natural selection (favours some alleles over others), genetic drift (random change in small populations), migration (adds/removes alleles), non-random mating (changes genotype frequencies). Detailed example: if peppered moths face insecticide spraying killing light moths, frequency of dark allele increases each generation because dark moths survive and reproduce more successfully (directional selection); this is evolution. Show with numbers: if initial dark allele frequency (p) = 0.3, after 5 generations of selection p might = 0.7, violating Hardy-Weinberg and proving the population evolved. Conclude: real populations always have one or more violated conditions, so evolution is inevitable.
Q1. Assertion (A):
The theory of spontaneous generation proposed that life arose from non-living matter such as decaying straw and mud.
Reason (R):
Louis Pasteur's experiments with pre-sterilised flasks demonstrated that life can only come from pre-existing life.
Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A — Both the assertion and reason are true. The assertion correctly describes spontaneous generation theory. The reason explains why this theory was rejected—Pasteur's experiments proved life only comes from pre-existing life. The reason directly explains why spontaneous generation was dismissed, making it the correct explanation for why the assertion's theory was wrong.
Q2. Assertion (A):
Earth's early atmosphere was a reducing atmosphere containing methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water vapour.
Reason (R):
The reducing atmosphere was essential because it provided the necessary conditions for the chemical evolution of organic molecules as proposed by Oparin and Haldane.
Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A — Both statements are true. Early Earth did have a reducing atmosphere (assertion is correct). This reducing atmosphere was specifically necessary for chemical evolution to occur, as energy sources like UV rays and electric discharge could act on these inorganic compounds to form organic molecules (reason is correct and explains the assertion).
Q3. Assertion (A):
S.L. Miller's 1953 experiment demonstrated the formation of amino acids under simulated early Earth conditions.
Reason (R):
This experiment proved that life had spontaneously generated in the laboratory flask.
Answer: C — A is true but R is false — The assertion is true—Miller did demonstrate amino acid formation. However, the reason is false because Miller's experiment demonstrated chemical evolution (formation of organic molecules), not spontaneous generation of life. The experiment created organic building blocks, not living organisms. Therefore, assertion is true but reason is false.
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Case Study:
A research team studying meteorite samples found organic compounds similar to those produced in S.L. Miller's experiments. They also analysed the composition of early Earth's atmosphere using geological evidence and found it to be rich in methane, ammonia, and water vapour. The team then simulated these conditions in a controlled laboratory environment and observed the formation of amino acids and other organic molecules over several weeks. These findings support the hypothesis that similar chemical processes might occur on other planets with similar atmospheric conditions.
Q1. Which theory is most strongly supported by the evidence presented in this research passage?
Answer: B
Q2. The presence of organic compounds in meteorites is significant because it suggests:
Answer: B
Q3. According to the passage, what was the most critical factor enabling the formation of organic molecules in the laboratory simulation?
Answer: A
Q4. The research team's findings that similar chemical processes might occur on other planets implies which of the following?
Answer: C
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Real CBSE board exam questions from past papers — free to attempt.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/1 · 3 marks
(a) How is Hardy-Weinberg expression (p2 + 2pq + q2) = 1 derived? (2 marks) (b) List any two factors that disturb the genetic equilibrium. (1 mark)
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 3 marks
How is Hardy-Weinberg expression (p2 + 2pq + q2) = 1 derived? List any two factors that disturb the genetic equilibrium.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/3/1 · 2 marks
(b) The allele for brown eyes (B) is dominant over blue eyes (b). In a population, 36% of individuals have blue eyes. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate: (i) Frequency of allele B (ii) Percentage of heterozygous individuals (iii) Percentage of individuals that are homozygous dominant (Working to be shown)
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/3/2 · 1 mark
Assertion (A) : Hardy-Weinberg principle says that allele frequencies in a population are stable. Reason (R) : Hardy-Weinberg principle is applicable only when genetic drift does not occur.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/3/2 · 2 marks
(b) The allele for brown eyes (B) is dominant over blue eyes (b). In a population, 36% of individuals have blue eyes. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate : (i) Frequency of allele B (ii) Percentage of heterozygous individuals (iii) Percentage of individuals that are homozygous dominant (Working to be shown)
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/1 · 1 mark
The idea of use and disuse of organs for evolution of organism was proposed by
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/1 · 1 mark
Assertion (A): The population of melanized moths increased in industrial areas after Industrial Revolution. Reason (R): In Industrial environment lichen covered trees were replaced by soot-covered trees offering better camouflage to dark coloured moths.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/2 · 1 mark
Assertion (A): When we see stars, we are apparently peeping into the past. Reason (R): What we see today is an object whose emitted light started its journey millions of years back reaching our eyes now.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 1 mark
Which one of the following evidences does not support Darwin's theory of natural selection?
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 1 mark
Assertion (A): Fossils provide direct evidence for evolution. Reason (R): Fossils help to trace evolutionary relationships among organisms over time.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/2/1 · 1 mark
What conclusion can be drawn if the forelimbs of an aquatic animal and a terrestrial animal have similar anatomical structure ?
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/2/1 · 3 marks
S.L. Miller conducted an experiment in 1953 to simulate the conditions of early earth in a laboratory setup. Answer the following questions based on the experiment : (a) What was the aim of his experiment ? (b) Name the gases used and the source of energy.
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