Everything you need to ace this chapter, in one place.
Notes · Mind Map · Quiz · Assertion-Reason · Case Studies · Question Bank · Past Papers
Q1. Which of the following correctly describes the ploidy of cells in the microspore tetrad formed during microsporogenesis?
Answer: B — During microsporogenesis, the pollen mother cell (diploid) undergoes meiosis I and II to produce four haploid microspores in a tetrad.
Q2. In a transverse section of an anther, the layer that provides nutrition to developing pollen grains is the:
Answer: C — The tapetum is the innermost nutritive wall layer with dense cytoplasm and multiple nuclei that nourishes developing pollen grains.
Q3. The mature embryo sac of most angiosperms is characterised by having how many cells and nuclei respectively?
Answer: B — The typical mature embryo sac is 7-celled with 8 nuclei: 3 antipodal cells (1 nucleus each), egg apparatus (egg + 2 synergids, 3 nuclei), 2 polar nuclei (1 nucleus each).
Q4. Consider the process of double fertilisation in flowering plants. Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer: B — In double fertilisation, syngamy (one sperm + egg nucleus) produces a 2n zygote that develops into the embryo, while triple fusion (second sperm + 2 polar nuclei) produces a 3n nucleus that develops into the endosperm.
Q5. Pollen-pistil incompatibility in some plants is controlled by the S-locus. In such a self-incompatibility system, what happens when a plant is pollinated with its own pollen?
Answer: B — Self-incompatibility systems prevent self-fertilisation when the S-locus alleles of the pollen match those of the pistil, blocking pollen tube growth before it reaches the ovule.
Q6. A student observes a pollen grain under the microscope and sees two nuclei in its cytoplasm. What does this indicate about the developmental stage of the pollen?
Answer: B — A two-celled pollen grain (bicellular stage) contains a larger vegetative nucleus and a smaller generative nucleus; the generative nucleus will later divide to form two sperm cells.
Q7. After pollination, the pollen tube grows through the style and enters the ovule via the micropyle. Which of the following best explains why this specific pathway ensures successful fertilisation?
Answer: B — Chemical signals from the stigma and style guide pollen tube growth, and filiform apparatus in the synergids release attractants that guide the pollen tube through the micropyle into the embryo sac.
Q8. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about apomixis?
Answer: D — Apomixis produces clones with no genetic variation, whereas sexual reproduction generates diversity; apomixis actually reduces genetic diversity compared to sexual reproduction.
Q9. A researcher studying seed coat formation observes that integuments of an ovule thicken and harden after fertilisation. Based on the post-fertilisation developmental pathway, what is the embryological origin and function of the seed coat?
Answer: B — Integuments differentiate into the seed coat (testa and tegmen layers) after fertilisation, providing mechanical protection, preventing mechanical injury, and regulating water absorption during germination.
Q10. Polyembryony in citrus plants can occur through multiple mechanisms. If a citrus ovule produces multiple embryos, one of which arises from the fusion of sperm and egg (zygotic embryo) while others develop from nucellar tissue, what is the immediate consequence for genetic variation in the resulting seeds?
Answer: B — In polyembryony, the zygotic embryo (from syngamy) is genetically unique and represents sexual reproduction, while adventive embryos from nucellar cells are clones of the maternal parent, reducing overall genetic diversity.
What is a pollen mother cell (PMC), and what does it undergo during microsporogenesis?
A PMC is a diploid sporogenous cell that undergoes meiosis to produce a tetrad of four haploid microspores.
Define the tapetum and state its function in the anther.
The tapetum is the innermost nutritive layer of the microsporangium that provides nutrients to developing pollen grains.
What are the three main parts of a typical pollen grain structure?
A pollen grain has the exine (outer wall), intine (inner wall), and cytoplasm containing the generative and vegetative nuclei.
How many cells and nuclei does a mature embryo sac (7-celled, 8-nucleate type) contain?
A mature embryo sac has 7 cells (3 antipodal cells, 2 synergids with egg cell, and 2 polar nuclei) and 8 nuclei.
What is double fertilisation, and what are its two events in flowering plants?
Double fertilisation consists of syngamy (fusion of sperm with egg to form 2n embryo) and triple fusion (fusion of second sperm with polar nuclei to form 3n endosperm).
Distinguish between pollen-pistil compatibility and incompatibility with one example.
Compatibility allows pollen tube growth and fertilisation; incompatibility prevents it due to biochemical barriers (e.g., S-locus alleles in self-incompatibility systems).
What is apomixis, and how does it differ from sexual reproduction?
Apomixis is asexual reproduction through seeds without meiosis or fusion, producing genetically identical offspring unlike sexual reproduction.
Define polyembryony and name one plant in which it occurs naturally.
Polyembryony is the development of multiple embryos from a single ovule, occurring naturally in plants like Citrus (orange and lemon).
What happens to the integument and nucellus after fertilisation during seed formation?
Integuments harden to form the seed coat; the nucellus may be absorbed or persist as perisperm to store nutrients.
Why is seed dispersal important for plant species survival in evolutionary terms?
Seed dispersal reduces competition with parent plants, colonises new habitats, and increases genetic diversity and population fitness.
Define microsporogenesis and state the ploidy of microspores produced. Draw a labelled diagram showing the microspore tetrad and its development into a mature pollen grain. [2 marks]
Microsporogenesis = meiosis in PMC; microspores are haploid (n). Diagram must show tetrad arrangement, mitotic division of microspore nucleus into vegetative and generative nuclei, and mature 2-celled pollen with exine and intine.
Explain the structure and developmental stages of the mature embryo sac (7-celled, 8-nucleate type). Identify the role of each region in double fertilisation and subsequent seed development. [5 marks]
Describe: egg apparatus (egg + 2 synergids with filiform apparatus), 2 polar nuclei in central cell, 3 antipodal cells. Explain: synergids guide pollen tube; egg fuses with sperm (syngamy → zygote/embryo); polar nuclei fuse with second sperm (triple fusion → 3n endosperm); antipodals degenerate. Link each to fertilisation outcome.
Double fertilisation is a defining feature of flowering plants. Explain the mechanisms of syngamy and triple fusion, showing why both events are essential for seed viability and endosperm development. Use a labelled diagram of the embryo sac during double fertilisation. [6 marks]
Show pollen tube entry at micropyle; trace both sperm nuclei movement; syngamy (sperm + egg → 2n zygote developing into embryo) must be justified (diploid for growth stability); triple fusion (sperm + 2 polar nuclei → 3n endosperm) must explain why 3n is essential (polyploidy provides metabolic vigour, stores nutrients). Diagram: label micropyle, synergids, egg, polar nuclei, pollen tube, both fusions occurring simultaneously. Conclude: embryo + endosperm balance ensures successful seed maturation and germination.
Q1. Assertion (A):
The androecium and gynoecium differentiate and develop within the flower during floral development.
Reason (R):
Hormonal and structural changes are initiated before the flower becomes visible on the plant, leading to differentiation of floral primordia.
Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A — Both the assertion and reason are true. The reason correctly explains why the assertion is accurate—developmental changes occur early at the hormonal and structural level, before visible flower appearance. This is the causal relationship between the two statements.
Q2. Assertion (A):
Tapetal cells are multinucleate with dense cytoplasm.
Reason (R):
Multinucleate tapetal cells synthesize and transport large quantities of nutrients required for pollen wall formation and development.
Answer: B — Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A — Both statements are true, but the reason does not fully explain why tapetal cells are multinucleate. While nutrient synthesis is a function of tapetal cells, multiple nuclei primarily enable high metabolic activity. The reason focuses on function rather than explaining the structural adaptation itself.
Q3. Assertion (A):
Sporogenous tissue in the young anther occupies the centre of the microsporangium.
Reason (R):
The sporogenous tissue is replaced by pollen grains as the anther matures and the cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo meiosis.
Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A — The assertion is true—sporogenous tissue is a group of compactly arranged cells at the center of the microsporangium. The reason correctly explains this localization; as development proceeds, these cells undergo meiosis to form microspores, which eventually mature into pollen grains that fill the space.
Unlock more Assertion-Reason questions in Premium — unlock →
Case Study:
A floriculture research institute in Bangalore is studying the development of anthers in hybrid rose varieties. They collected stamens from buds of different developmental stages and performed histological sections. In Stage 1 buds (2 cm length), they observed that the sporogenous tissue occupied the entire central region of the microsporangium, consisting of densely packed homogenous cells with no signs of meiotic division. In Stage 3 buds (5 cm length), they observed microspore tetrads arranged in clusters, with the tapetum significantly depleted of cytoplasm but still multinucleate. In Stage 5 buds (8 cm length), individual pollen grains were observed with distinct wall layers, and the tapetum had almost completely degenerated. The researchers noted that at each stage, the anther maintained its dithecous structure with four distinct microsporangia.
Q1. At Stage 1, the sporogenous tissue consists of cells that are best described as
Answer: B
Q2. The significant depletion of tapetal cytoplasm observed in Stage 3 most likely indicates
Answer: B
Q3. If the researchers observed 16 microsporangia across all four anthers in a single flower, and each microsporangium contained approximately 5,000 pollen grains at Stage 5, how many total pollen grains would be produced by the flower?
Answer: C
Q4. At Stage 5, the complete degeneration of the tapetum and the presence of mature pollen with distinct wall layers suggest that the anther is
Answer: D
Unlock more case studies in Premium — unlock →
Real CBSE board exam questions from past papers — free to attempt.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/1 · 1 mark
Identify the plant in which emasculation is not required for artificial hybridization.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/1 · 2 marks
(a) (i) How does a farmer use dormancy of seed to his advantage? (1 mark) (ii) Differentiate between pea seed and castor seed. (1 mark)
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/1 · 3 marks
(a) Do all pollen grains remain viable for the same length of time? Support your answer with two suitable examples. (2.5 marks) (b) How are pollen grains stored in pollen banks? (0.5 marks)
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/1 · 3 marks
Draw a neat diagram of megasporangium of an angiosperm and label any six parts. (0.5 × 6 = 3 marks)
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/2 · 3 marks
(a) Do all pollen grains remain viable for the same length of time? Support your answer with two suitable examples. (2½ marks) (b) How are pollen grains stored in pollen banks? (½ mark)
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/2 · 5 marks
(a) In angiosperms, the female gametophyte develops from a single cell of megasporangium. (i) Name that cell of megasporangium and describe the sequential changes it undergoes to form a mature female gametophyte. (3 marks) (ii) Draw a well labelled diagram of mature female gametophyte. Label any four parts. (2 marks) OR (b) [Hindi text not included - refer to original for complete OR section]
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 1 mark
Perisperm present in seed of black pepper is remnant of
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 2 marks
How does a farmer use dormancy of seed to his advantage? Differentiate between pea seed and castor seed.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 2 marks
Write any two advantages of producing plants by micro-propagation.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 3 marks
Do all pollen grains remain viable for the same length of time? Support your answer with two suitable examples. How are pollen grains stored in pollen banks?
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/1/3 · 3 marks
Draw a neat diagram of megasporangium of an angiosperm and label any six parts.
CBSE 2026 · Set 57/2/1 · 1 mark
Given below are stages of embryo sac formation from megaspore mother cell. Identify the correct option for the cell division marked a, b, c and d.
See all 132 board PYQs for this chapter — open PYQ tab →
All 1074 CBSE board questions from 2022–2026, sorted by chapter and question type. Free PDF download.
You've seen the free preview. Open the full interactive study kit — mind map, instant-graded quiz, progress tracking — free, no sign-in required.
Open Full Study Kit — Free →Premium unlocks the full Question Bank, Daily Practice Papers, Chapter Quiz and Full Mock Papers for every chapter.