Everything you need to ace this chapter, in one place.
Notes · Mind Map · Quiz · Assertion-Reason · Case Studies · Question Bank · Past Papers
Q1. What is the percentage composition of water in blood plasma?
Answer: C — Plasma is 90-92% water, which makes it a fluid medium for transporting dissolved substances.
Q2. Which of the following statements about RBCs is INCORRECT?
Answer: C — RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most mammals;
Q3. A person with blood group O can donate blood to which of the following groups?
Answer: C — Group O has no antigens, so it does not trigger immune response in any recipient; hence it is the universal donor for all groups.
Q4. What is the normal haemoglobin level in a healthy adult measured as?
Answer: B — A healthy individual has 12-16 grams of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood, which is the standard clinical reference.
Q5. The spleen is called the 'graveyard of RBCs' because it is responsible for:
Answer: C — The spleen destroys old RBCs that have completed their 120-day lifespan, hence the name 'graveyard of RBCs'.
Q6. Which statement about WBCs is correct? Assertion (A): Neutrophils are the most abundant WBCs at 60-65% of total WBCs. Reason (R): Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that destroy foreign organisms.
Answer: B — Both statements are true: neutrophils are abundant (60-65%) AND they are phagocytic, but abundance is not due to their phagocytic nature alone—it is their role in primary defence.
Q7. If a person has 4.2 million RBCs per mm³ of blood, this person likely has:
Answer: C — Normal RBC count is 5-5.5 million per mm³; a count of 4.2 million is below normal, indicating anaemia or oxygen-carrying capacity reduction.
Q8. Why does Rh incompatibility cause problems only in the second pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive foetus, not the first?
Answer: B — In the first pregnancy, the placenta separates bloods; during first delivery, the mother is exposed to foetal Rh+ve blood and forms anti-Rh antibodies that attack the second Rh+ve foetus.
Q9. Which of the following is NOT a function of plasma proteins? Assertion: Fibrinogen aids in blood clotting, globulins in defence, and albumins in osmotic balance. Reason: Plasma proteins also directly carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Answer: B — Plasma proteins (fibrinogen, globulins, albumins) do NOT directly transport O₂ and CO₂; haemoglobin in RBCs does that, not plasma proteins.
Q10. Calculate: If the normal WBC count is 8000 per mm³ and neutrophils constitute 60% of total WBCs, how many neutrophils are present per mm³?
Answer: B — Neutrophils = 60% of 8000 = 0.60 × 8000 = 4800 per mm³; this calculation applies the percentage formula to blood cell counts.
What is blood? Define it with its two main components.
Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix (plasma) and formed elements (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets).
What percentage of blood is plasma, and what is its main component?
Plasma constitutes 55% of blood and is 90-92% water.
Name the three main proteins found in plasma and their functions.
Fibrinogen (clotting), globulins (defence), and albumins (osmotic balance) are the major plasma proteins.
What is the normal count of RBCs in a healthy adult male?
A healthy adult male has 5 to 5.5 million RBCs per mm³ of blood.
Why are RBCs called 'red blood cells' and what do they contain?
RBCs are called red blood cells because they contain haemoglobin, a red-coloured iron-containing protein that transports oxygen.
What is the lifespan of an RBC and where are old RBCs destroyed?
RBCs have an average lifespan of 120 days and are destroyed in the spleen, which is called the graveyard of RBCs.
Which blood group is the universal donor and why?
O blood group is the universal donor because it has no A or B antigens on RBCs, so it cannot trigger immune rejection.
What is Rh incompatibility and when does it become dangerous in pregnancy?
Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive foetus; it causes problems in the second pregnancy due to maternal antibodies.
Name the two main categories of WBCs and give one example of each.
The two main categories are granulocytes (e.g. neutrophils) and agranulocytes (e.g. lymphocytes).
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
Plasma is blood fluid with clotting factors present, while serum is plasma without the clotting factors.
Define blood and mention its two main components with their percentage composition in blood. [2 marks]
State that blood is a connective tissue; mention plasma (55%) and formed elements (45%) with brief function of each.
Explain the ABO blood grouping system with reference to antigens, antibodies, and transfusion compatibility. Why is group O considered a universal donor? [5 marks]
Create a table showing A, B, AB, O groups with their antigens and antibodies; explain that O has no antigens so no immune rejection occurs in any recipient; define universal donor accordingly.
What is erythroblastosis foetalis? Explain the mechanism of its occurrence in the second pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive foetus, and how it can be prevented. [6 marks]
Define the disease; explain that 1st pregnancy is safe (placenta separates bloods), but during delivery maternal blood contacts foetal Rh+ve blood → mother forms anti-Rh antibodies → 2nd pregnancy: these antibodies cross placenta and destroy foetal RBCs; prevention: give anti-Rh antibodies after 1st delivery to prevent maternal sensitization.
Q1. Assertion (A):
Group O individuals can donate blood to persons with any blood group.
Reason (R):
Group O RBCs lack both A and B antigens, so they will not trigger immune response in any recipient.
Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A — Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains why O group is the universal donor. The absence of A and B antigens prevents agglutination with any recipient's antibodies.
Q2. Assertion (A):
Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cells in human blood.
Reason (R):
Neutrophils constitute 60-65% of total WBC count and are primarily involved in destroying pathogens through phagocytosis.
Answer: B — Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A — The assertion is true (neutrophils are most abundant), and the reason is also factually correct, but the reason does not explain WHY they are most abundant. The abundance relates to their critical role in immediate defense, not just their phagocytic function.
Q3. Assertion (A):
RBCs in mammals lack a nucleus at maturity.
Reason (R):
Loss of nucleus in RBCs provides more space for haemoglobin and increases oxygen-carrying capacity.
Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A — Both assertion and reason are true. Mammalian mature RBCs are enucleated (lack nucleus), and this adaptation allows more haemoglobin molecules to fit in the cell, increasing oxygen transport efficiency.
Unlock more Assertion-Reason questions in Premium — unlock →
Case Study:
A 32-year-old woman in her second pregnancy visited a hospital with complaints of nausea and fatigue. During routine blood tests, her blood group was determined as Rh negative (Rh−ve). Her medical records showed that her first child, born 3 years ago, was healthy with no complications. However, the current pregnancy shows elevated levels of anti-Rh antibodies in her blood serum. The attending physician expressed concern about the foetus and recommended close monitoring throughout the pregnancy.
Q1. Why were anti-Rh antibodies present in the mother's blood?
Answer: B
Q2. What is the primary risk to the current Rh positive foetus due to elevated maternal anti-Rh antibodies?
Answer: A
Q3. Why was the first child of this Rh negative mother born healthy despite carrying Rh positive blood?
Answer: B
Q4. What preventive measure should have been taken immediately after the first delivery to prevent complications in the second pregnancy?
Answer: A
Unlock more case studies in Premium — unlock →
You've seen the free preview. Open the full interactive study kit — mind map, instant-graded quiz, progress tracking — free, no sign-in required.
Open Full Study Kit — Free →Premium unlocks the full Question Bank, Daily Practice Papers, Chapter Quiz and Full Mock Papers for every chapter.